भगवान महावीर का सन्देश :

Some test papers for the exams

1.If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15
(b)12
(c)18
(d)10

Ans. (b)

2.If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

(a)12
(b)8
(c)16
(d)6

Ans. (b)

3. (1/10)18 – (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020
(b) 99/10
(c) 0.9
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

4.Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins
and Pipe C can
empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work
together, find the time
taken to fill the tank
(a) 17 1/7 mins
(b) 20 mins
(c) 8 mins
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9
hours a day.How
many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the
job?
(a) 8 hrs
(b) 7 1/2 hrs
(c) 7 hrs
(d) 9 hrs

Ans. (b)

6. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38
and product 1728
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 8
(d) none of these

Ans. (c)

7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms
downstream in 4
hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the
speed of the
water current?
(a) 1/2 kmph
(b) 7/12 kmph
(c) 5 kmph
(d) none of these

Ans. (b)

8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of
side 12m by a rope
7m long.Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m
(b) 155 sq.m
(c) 144 sq.m
(d) 19.25 sq.m

Ans. (a)

9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a
tube station. He
found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30
seconds to
reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs
he would only
require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time
is measured from
the moment the top step begins to descend to the
time he steps off
the last step at the bottom, find out the height of
the stair way in
steps?

Ans.46 steps.

10. The average age of 10 members of a committee is
the same as it was
4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced
by a young
member. Find how much younger is the new member ?

Ans.40 years.

11. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and
c respectively;
and container A is full of water while the other two
are empty. If
from container A water is poured into container B
which becomes 1/3
full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how
much water is
left in container A?

12. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a
rectangle. AB = 10
and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?

Ans. AE = 10.

13. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the
circle at A and
B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to
tangent PA. If AC = 6
cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what
is the length of
the chord BC?

Ans. BC = 4 cm.

15 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary
pack of cards.
Find the probability that they will consist of a king,
a queen and an ace.

Ans. 64/2210.

16. A number of cats got together and decided to kill
between them
999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of
mice. Each cat
killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats
do you think
there were ?

Ans. 991.

17. If Log2 x – 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the
value / values of
x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.

18. The square of a two digit number is divided by
half the number.
After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then
divided by 2.
The digits of the resulting number are the same as
those in the
original number, but they are in reverse order. The
ten’s place of
the original number is equal to twice the difference
between its
digits. What is the number?

Ans. 46

19.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner
that there shall
be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise
coins.?

Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten
paise coins, and 1
twenty-five paise coins.

20.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each
hour, it hops
3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take
the monkey to
reach the top?

Ans.18 hours.

We are presenting you the some sample paper for the various competitive exams.

1. ‘Food For Oil’ programme running in which of the following countries was in news recently ?
(A) Kuwait
(B) Iran
(C) Iraq
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these

2. The ‘Supreme Court of India’ recently declared which of the following proclamations unconstitutional ?
(A) Formation of an enquiry commission to probe Volcker Reports
(B) Dissolution of Bihar Assembly
(C) Setting up another commission in place of Phukan Commission
(D) Setting up a commission headed by an eminent diplomat to investigate recent Bomb Blast in Delhi instead of allowing CBI to do the same
(E) None of these

3. Which of the following is true about the recent discussion on the tariff reduction formulae proposed at the WTO ?
(A) India accepted the formulae presented by South Africa as it more or less matches with the formulae presented by it. South Africa was given the responsibility to find an amicably acceptable solution to the same
(B) India along with several others presented a formulae which was accepted by the USA but the EU refused to accept it
(C) USA, Australia and EU presented a formulae which is not acceptable to India
(D) India wishes to resign from the membership of the WTO as it is not ready sacrifice the interests of the agriculturists of India
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following European Countries was recently in news as violent riots broke out there ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) Spain
(D) France
(E) None of these

5. Sunil Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Year’ by which of the following news paper/magazines ?
(A) Businessworld
(B) Business India
(C) Economic Times
(D) Business Standard
(E) None of these

6. Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann won the ‘Nobel Prize-2005’ for their contribution in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Economics
(C) Chemistry
(D) Literature
(E) None of these

]7. India, recently decided to conduct a joint air exercise with which of the following countries ?
(The exercise was in news recently as a group of people was not in favour of such joint ventures)
(A) Britain
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) France
(E) USA

8. India wants that the UN Security Council must have at least—
(A) 5 permanent members including India and China
(B) 7 permanent members including India and China
(C) 9 permanent members including India and China
(D) 11 permanent members including India and Pakistan
(E) 15 permanent members in both permanent and non-permanent category

9. Which of the following states was badly hit by a killer earthquake in October 2005 ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
(E) Jammu & Kashmir

10. R. K. Surati who won four Gold Medals in a Championship held in Pretoria recently is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Rifle Shooting
(B) Archery
(C) Power lifting
(D) 400 mt. Race
(E) None of these

11. Which of the following companies is not an IT/Software company ?
(A) Infosys
(B) Wipro
(C) NIIT
(D) Rolex
(E) All are IT/Software Companies

12. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
(A) NPA
(B) NAV
(C) Liquidity
(D) NAFTA
(E) IPO

13. Rahul Dravid was appointed the Captain of the Indian Cricket Team for one day series against which of the following ?
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) South Africa
(3) Australia
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) (1), (2) and (3) all

14. ‘Nalchik’ which was recently in news, is a city in—
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) China
(E) Russia

15. Anju Bobby George won Gold Medal in 16th Asian Atheletics Meet held recently. The meet was organized in—
(A) South Korea
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these

16. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the Central Information Commission (CIC) set up recently under the Right to Information Act ?
(A) Sam Pitroda
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) Wajahat Habibullah
(E) None of these

17. The 13th SAARC meet was held in—
(A) Dhaka
(B) Kathmandu
(C) Islamabad
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these

18. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Mathematical Theory of Black Holes’ ? (The author is regarded a great astrophysicists of the modern times)
(A) Dr. C. V. Raman
(B) Dr. J. V. Narlikar
(C) Dr. S. Chandrashekhar
(D) Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
(E) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai

19. Asian Junior Table Tennis Championship matches were played recently in—
(A) China
(B) India
(C) South Korea
(D) Singapore
(E) None of these

20. Mr. Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri is the—
(A) External Affairs Minister of Pakistan
(B) External Affairs Minister of Bangladesh
(C) Home Minister of Pakistan
(D) Home Minister of Bangladesh
(E) None of these

21. What is India’s position in terms of the number of Internet users in the world ?
(A) 3rd
(B) 4th
(C) 5th
(D) 10th
(E) None of these

22. Which of the following countries had emerged as World’s largest Cell phone maker ? (As per the figures available upto April 2005)
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) Japan
(D) China
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following schemes is being implemented in rural areas which provides an assured employment of 100 days to a willing youth in India ?
(A) Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)
(B) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
(C) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
(D) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
(E) None of these

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Doctor Zhivago’ ?
(A) Maxim Gorky
(B) Boris Pasternak
(C) Aldous Huxley
(D) George Eliot
(E) None of these

25. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of ‘Bharat Ratna’ ?
(A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Prof. Amartya Sen
(E) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

26. Justice Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal was the new Chief Justice of—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Mumbai High Court
(C) Delhi High Court
(D) Kolkata High Court
(E) Supreme Court of India

27. Ramon Magsaysay Awards are not given in which of the following categories ?
(A) Government Service
(B) Community Leadership
(C) Journalism
(D) Public Service
(E) Music

28. Harold Pinter, who won the Nobel Prize for Literature, is a citizen of—
(A) China
(B) Britain
(C) USA
(D) Russia
(E) Canada

29. Which of the following countries is not the member of SAARC ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Maldives
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Surinam
(E) All are members

30. Veselin Tapolev who became the World Champion recently, is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Chess
(B) Golf
(C) Snooker
(D) Badminton
(E) None of these

31. Which of the following is not an anti inflationary measure of the Government ?
(A) Strict fiscal discipline
(B) Rationalization of Excise Duties
(C) Strengthening Public Distribution System
(D) Issuing new currency notes/coins
(E) Rationalization of Import Duties

32. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is in—
(A) Vienna
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) Nebraska
(E) None of these

33. ‘Kyat’ is the monetary unit of—
(A) North Korea
(B) Israel
(C) Indonesia
(D) Mongolia
(E) Myanmar

34. Which of the following is the full form of ‘PPP’ ?
(A) Purchase Price and Power
(B) Producer Price and Power
(C) Poverty, Production and Purchases
(D) Purchasing Power Parity
(E) None of these

35. Which of the following universities of North-East states has now the status of a Central University ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Shilong
(C) Guwahati
(D) Mizoram
(E) None of these

36. Who amongst the following is not a member of G-8 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) Japan
(D) France
(E) USA

37. ‘Quartz’, which is used in ornaments or in industries, is a crystal containing—
(A) Silicon Dioxide
(B) Platinum Dioxide
(C) Silver Chloride
(D) Fluoro Carbon
(E) None of these

38. A farmer engaged in Organic Farming will never use which of the following manures ?
(A) Compost
(B) Sewage Sludge
(C) Cow dung
(D) Urea
(E) None of these

39. Which of the following is a Cricket related term ?
(A) Push in
(B) Scissor Kick
(C) Hook
(D) Smash
(E) Dribble

40. Nirmal Verma who died recently was a famous—
(A) Painter
(B) Classical singer
(C) Author
(D) Politician
(E) Social Worker

41. Which of the following is not a Banking/Finance related term ?
(A) Current Account
(B) Pay Order
(C) Par Value
(D) Short Position
(E) Infringement

42. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the area of music ?
(A) Saraswati Samman
(B) Tansen Samman
(C) Vyas Samman
(D) Borlaugh Award
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following is a major jute producing state ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
(E) West Bengal

44. The study of the origin of universe is known as—
(A) Cosmology
(B) Chronology
(C) Geology
(D) Orography
(E) None of these

45. ‘Radcliffe Line’ divides the borders of—
(A) India-China
(B) China-Russia
(C) Russia-Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan-Afghanistan
(E) India-Pakistan

46. Which of the following is the currency of Saudi Arabia ?
(A) Taka
(B) Rial
(C) Baht
(D) Ruble
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is a book written by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam ?
(A) Wings of Fire
(B) The Transparent Mind
(C) A Brief History of Time
(D) Indian Modernity
(E) None of these

48. The RBI revised the Reverse Repo Rate recently by 25 basis points. The present rate is—
(A) 4%
(B) 4•25%
(C) 5%
(D) 5•25%
(E) 6•00%

49. Which of the following is not a famous ‘Tiger Reserve’ in India ?
(A) Sunderbans
(B) Kaziranga
(C) Sariska
(D) Kanha
(E) None of these

50. ‘Subroto Cup’ is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Cricket
(E) None of these

Answers with Explanation

1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (C) Sunil Bharti Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Award’ by the Economic Times news paper in the year 2005.
6. (B)The Nobel Prize winners in Economics in the field of ‘Game Theory Analysis’ in the year 2005 were Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann (Jointly).
7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (E) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (E) 14. (E) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A)18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (E) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A)
38. (D) For Organic Farming, fertilizer’s use is restricted like Urea, DAP, MOP etc. Only organic sources—conventional / FYM, Compost etc. and non-conventional organic sources like sewage, Municipal Waste, Press mud, coir pith etc. are being used.
39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (B) 50. (A)

Directions (Q 1–5): In each of the letter series, find the missing letters.

1. a – c c a b c – a b – c – b c c

1. b a c c

2. b c c a

3. c b c a

4. c c b a

5. c a b c

2. b b c – b – c a b b – a – b c a

1. b c a b

2. a c b b

3. a b c b

4. c a b b

5. a d b c

3. x x – y – x x x x y – x x x x y – x

1. y x y y

2. y x x x

3. x y x x

4. x y y y

5. x x x y

4. a a – c – a b c a – b c a a b –

1. c a a b

2. a a c b

3. b a a c

4. b a c a
5. None of these

5. c c b – c – b a c c – a – c b a

1. b c a c

2. a b c c

3. c c b a

4. a c b c

5. None of these

6. A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father and E is D’s mother. What is the relationship of A with E?

1. Daughter

2. Grand daughter

3. Grandson

4. Grandmother

5. Sister

7. If yesterday’s tomorrow was Wednesday, then yesterday’s day-after-tomorrow will be

1. Wednesday

2. Thursday

3. Friday

4. Saturday

5. Sunday

8. Which of the following groups of letters is different from the other groups of letters?

1. FETE

2. GAME

3. HUGE

4. LOVE

5. SMALL

9. Which of the following series is without any law/pattern?

1. FHKOT

2. CEHLP

3. IKNRW

4. LNQUZ

5. INTKR

10. In a row of the six members sitting, P is sitting to the left of Q but to the right of Y. R is sitting to the right of X but to the left of Q who is to the left of Z. The members sitting in the middle are

1. PR

2. RQ

3. XQ

4. PS

5. None of these

11. Select an item from those given in alternatives that has the same property as the one in question

697, 888, 945

1. 146

2. 934

3. 879

4. 555

5. 584

12. Find the missing term in the series BYAZ, ? , DWCX, EVDW

1. AXBY

2. CXBY

3. AZDW

4. CYBX

5. CDBY

13. Find the missing term in the series CEHLQ, FHKOT, ?, LNQUZ

1. GILPU

2. JLOSX

3. IKMQV

4. IKNRW

5. LKMST

14. A boat is going against the stream in a river and it first turns to exact right and then again a second time exactly to the right to its direction of motion. Assuming that the boat is propelled at constant velocity from the start, how will the speed be effected now?

1. Will increase or decrease

2. Will remain the same

3. Will increase

4. Will decrease

5. None of these

15. Select an item from those given as alternatives that has the same property as the one in question. 914, 703, 813

1. 611

2. 789

3. 870

4. 120

5. 154

Directions (Q 16–23): Find out the next term in the given series:

16. 9, 12, 21, 48, ?

1. 69

2. 84

3. 102

4. 129

5. 125

17. 95, 115.5, 138, ?

1. 162.5

2. 163.5

3. 164.5

4. 167.5

5. 125.5

18. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, ?

1. 21

2. 23

3. 25

4. 29

5. 24

19. 563, 647, 479, 815, ?

1. 143

2. 279

3. 386

4. 672

5. 786

20. 79, 68, 57, 46, ?

1. 17

2. 27

3. 35

4. 66

5. 65

21. 5, 1/5, 17, 1/17, 29, 1/29, ?

1. 34

2. 39

3. 41

4. 49

5. 40

22. 18, 27, 6, 9, 2, 3, ?

1. 1

2. 1/3

3. 2/3

4. 1/2

5. 1/4

23. 4, 2, 8, 4, 24, 12, 96, ?

1. 24

2. 36

3. 40

4. 48

5. 50

Directions (Q 24–30): Which one is different from others?

24. Calf, Colt, Puppy, Cat, Cub

1. Calf

2. Colt

3. Puppy

4. Cat

5. Cub

25. Ox, Peacock, Lion, Hen, Tiger

1. Lion

2. Ox

3. Peacock

4. Hen

5. Tiger

26. Copper, Diamond, Silver, Gold, Platinum

1. Diamond

2. Gold

3. Silver

4. Copper

5. Platinum

27. Diet, Died, Tied, Tide, Fried

1. Tide

2. Diet

3. Tied

4. Died

5. Fried

28. 16, 22, 30, 45, 52, 66

1. 30

2. 45

3. 52

4. 66

5. 16

29. 8754, 9786, 7986, 3243, 1245

1. 8754

2. 9786

3. 7986a

4. 3243

5. 1245

30. 1622, 2540, 3840, 5786, 5453

1. 5786

2. 3840

3. 2540

4. 1622

5. 5453

Answers

1. 2, 2. 3, 3. 4, 4. 3, 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 2, 8. 1, 9. 2, 10. 4

11. 2, 12. 2, 13. 4, 14. 3, 15. 1, 16. 4, 17. 1, 18. 2, 19. 1, 20. 3

21. 3, 22. 3, 23. 4, 24. 4, 25. 4, 26. 1, 27. 1, 28. 2, 29. 3, 30. 1

Computer knowledge Expected Solved Paper

1. A Compiler is ____
(A) A combination of computer hardware
(B) A program which translates from one high-level language to another
(C) A program which translates from one high-level to a machine level
(D)None of these
Ans : C

2. When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used for converting the keystroke into the corresponding bits
(A)ANSI
(B) ASCII
(C) EBCDIC
() ISO
Ans : A

3. A Pixel is -
(A) A computer program that draws picture
(B) A picture stored in secondary memory
(C) The smallest resolvable part of a picture
(D) None of these
Ans : C

4. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment
(A) Keyboard
(B) Mouse
(C) Joystick
(D) Track ball
Ans : B

5. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
(A) 2
(B) 10
(C) 16
(D) 32
Ans : A
6. Which of the following is not an output device?
(A)Scanner
(B) Printer
(C) Flat Screen
(D) Touch Screen
Ans : D

7. Which of the following devices have a limitation that we can only information to it but cannot erase or modify it
(A) Floppy Disk
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Tape Drive
(D) CDROM
Ans : D

8. Which technology is used in Compact disks?
(A) Mechanical
(B) Electrical
(C) Electro Magnetic
(D) Laser
Ans : D

9. Which of the following storage
devices can store maximum amount of data?
(A) Floppy Disk
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Compact Disk
(D) Magneto Optic Disk
Ans : B

10. Which of the following is the largest manufacturer of Hard Disk Drives?
(A) IBM
(B) Segate
(C) Microsoft
(D) 3M
Ans : B

11. The memory location address are limited to
(A) 00000 to 9ffff(16)
(B) 00001 to 9ffff(16)
(C) 00010 to 9ffff(16)
(D) 10000 to 9ffff(16)
Ans : A

12. The programs which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is known as
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Firmware
(D) ROMware
Ans : C

13. Memory is made up of
(A) Set of wires
(B) Set of circuits
(C) Large number of cells
(D) All of these
Ans : C

14. Primary memory stores
(A) Data alone
(B) Programs alone
(C) Results alone
(D) All of these
Ans : D

15. EPROM can be used for
(A) Erasing the contents of ROM
(B) Reconstructing the contents of ROM
(C) Erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(DS) Duplicating ROM
Ans : C

16. Which device can understand difference between data & programs?
(A)Input device
(B) Output device
(C) Memory
(D) Microprocessor
Ans : D

17. The contents of information are stored in
(A) Memory data register
(B) Memory address register
(C) Memory access register
(D) Memory arithmetic register
Ans : A

18. Memory unit is one part of
(A) Input device
(B) Control unit
(C) Output device
(D) Central Processing Unit
Ans : D

19. Algorithm and Flow chart help us to
(A) Know the memory capacity
(B) Identify the base of a number system
(C) Direct the output to a printer
(D) Specify the problem completely and clearly
Ans : D

20. Which of the following is not a valid size of a Floppy Disk?
(A) 8″
(B) 5 1/4″
(C) 3 1/2″
(D) 5 1/2″
Computer knowledge Expected Solved Paper

1. A Compiler is ____
(A) A combination of computer hardware
(B) A program which translates from one high-level language to another
(C) A program which translates from one high-level to a machine level
(D)None of these
Ans : C

2. When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used for converting the keystroke into the corresponding bits
(A)ANSI
(B) ASCII
(C) EBCDIC
() ISO
Ans : A

3. A Pixel is -
(A) A computer program that draws picture
(B) A picture stored in secondary memory
(C) The smallest resolvable part of a picture
(D) None of these
Ans : C

4. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment
(A) Keyboard
(B) Mouse
(C) Joystick
(D) Track ball
Ans : B

5. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
(A) 2
(B) 10
(C) 16
(D) 32
Ans : A

6. Which of the following is not an output device?
(A)Scanner
(B) Printer
(C) Flat Screen
(D) Touch Screen
Ans : D

7. Which of the following devices have a limitation that we can only information to it but cannot erase or modify it
(A) Floppy Disk
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Tape Drive
(D) CDROM
Ans : D

8. Which technology is used in Compact disks?
(A) Mechanical
(B) Electrical
(C) Electro Magnetic
(D) Laser
Ans : D

9. Which of the following storage
devices can store maximum amount of data?
(A) Floppy Disk
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Compact Disk
(D) Magneto Optic Disk
Ans : B

10. Which of the following is the largest manufacturer of Hard Disk Drives?
(A) IBM
(B) Segate
(C) Microsoft
(D) 3M
Ans : B

11. The memory location address are limited to
(A) 00000 to 9ffff(16)
(B) 00001 to 9ffff(16)
(C) 00010 to 9ffff(16)
(D) 10000 to 9ffff(16)
Ans : A

12. The programs which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is known as
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Firmware
(D) ROMware
Ans : C

13. Memory is made up of
(A) Set of wires
(B) Set of circuits
(C) Large number of cells
(D) All of these
Ans : C

14. Primary memory stores
(A) Data alone
(B) Programs alone
(C) Results alone
(D) All of these
Ans : D

15. EPROM can be used for
(A) Erasing the contents of ROM
(B) Reconstructing the contents of ROM
(C) Erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(DS) Duplicating ROM
Ans : C

16. Which device can understand difference between data & programs?
(A)Input device
(B) Output device
(C) Memory
(D) Microprocessor
Ans : D

17. The contents of information are stored in
(A) Memory data register
(B) Memory address register
(C) Memory access register
(D) Memory arithmetic register
Ans : A

18. Memory unit is one part of
(A) Input device
(B) Control unit
(C) Output device
(D) Central Processing Unit
Ans : D

19. Algorithm and Flow chart help us to
(A) Know the memory capacity
(B) Identify the base of a number system
(C) Direct the output to a printer
(D) Specify the problem completely and clearly
Ans : D

20. Which of the following is not a valid size of a Floppy Disk?
(A) 8″
(B) 5 1/4″
(C) 3 1/2″
(D) 5 1/2″
Ans : B

Numerical test

1. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank

Answer is: 17 1/7 mins

2. If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?

Answer is: 12

3. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day.How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job?

Answer is: 7 1/2 hrs

4. If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

Answer is: 8

5. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?

Answer is: AE = 10.

6. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?

Answer is: BC = 4 cm

7. Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace.

Answer is: 64/2210

8. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?

Answer is: 991

9. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12m by a rope 7m long.Find the area it can graze?

Answer is: 38.5 sq.m

10. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?

Answer is: 7/12 kmph

11. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?

Answer is: 46 steps

12. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728

Answer is: 8

13. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?

Answer is: 18 hours

14. The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member ?

Answer is: 40 years

15. Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.?

Answers is:  45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins

Some thing about :  The Constitution of India

1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been
laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are
enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for
operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian
territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

3. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above

4. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty
5. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is
the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial
emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

8. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get
reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

9. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the
protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to
the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

11. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for
President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the
head of the states for his official act from legal action, including
proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the
right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of
either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly &
Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or
newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of
proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings’ of a House of the
Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion
or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment’.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a
garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must
not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above
16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional
right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute
arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in
operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above
17. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the
British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C
18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other
person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the
Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
19. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power
to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions
of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to
any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to
conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry
out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with
respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the
advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

24. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the
proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be
taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha—
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days

27. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution
for Removal from his office is under consideration—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok
Sabha are mentioned—
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament
after notification is received from the Election Commission—
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the
Houses of Parliament—
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above

33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of
the Houses of Parliament—
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House

34. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament—
(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110

35. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter—
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill

36. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold—
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above

37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of
Parliament—
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above

38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented—
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above

39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure—
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent
matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences.

40. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha
(D) All the above

41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister

42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha—
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House

43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of
Reading before it becomes act—
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above

44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is
the status of the name—
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure

45. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

46. When does the President assent the Bill—
(A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill
(B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above

47. In India, when does the financial year commence—
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(D) Fifteenth March

48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above

49. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

50. How are the parts of the Budget known as—
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was
the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every
territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

53. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall
be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as
18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen
eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the
Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the
Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian
citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage’ signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above

61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not
be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House
of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the
courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by
appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats
for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the
Anglo-Indian Community’ with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community
can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the
Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian
Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative
Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation
of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for
reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok
Sabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for
reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of
seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation
of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative
Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above

75. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in
Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

76. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of
Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a
Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill

81. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

82. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House &
Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above

83. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

84. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President
Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

85. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are
elected as laid down by their country’s constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College

87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with
respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three
constitutional organ
(D) All the above

88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not
amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

89. What is the nature of India’s political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme
Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

91. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the
Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the
Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State
Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter
V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of
State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above

94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the
Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights
cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through
Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian
Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third
majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum
for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of
the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above

Answers :

1.(A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(A)
6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(D)
11.(A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(D)
16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(A) 19.(B) 20.(C)
21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(D) 24.(A) 25.(C)
26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(C) 30.(A)
31.(C) 32.(C) 33.(A) 34.(A) 35.(D)
36.(D) 37.(A) 38.(B) 39.(D) 40.(C)
41.(A) 42.(D) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(B)
46.(C) 47.(A) 48.(C) 49.(B) 50.(C)
51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(A) 54.(B) 55.(C)
56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(D) 59.(A) 60.(C)
61.(A) 62.(C) 63.(D) 64.(A) 65.(B)
66.(C) 67.(A) 68.(D) 69.(B) 70.(D)
71.(B) 72.(C) 73.(D) 74.(A) 75.(B)
76.(D) 77.(C) 78.(B) 79.(A) 80.(B)
81.(D) 82.(D) 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(C)
86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B)
91.(A) 92.(D) 93.(D) 94.(C) 95.(A)
96.(B) 97.(A) 98.(D) 99.(D) 100.(D)

Gk practise paper
1. On 7th May 2008, agni-I was test-fired. It was—

(A) Ballistic Missile

(B) Surface to air missile

(C) Land to sea missile

(D) Air to air missile

2. Which of the following High Courts has recently quashed the merit list issued in 2006 and 2007 by the centre and the UPSC—

(A) Bhopal High Court

(B) Rajasthan High Court

(C) Madras High Court

(D) Guwahati High Court

3. Recently the Acronym START came into News. START stands for—

(A) Strategic Association for Restructuring Trade

(B) Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty

(C) System Tracking and Reprocessing Team

(D) None of the above
4. People’s Democratic Party emerged second largest party with 33•01% in elections held in—

(A) Bhutan

(B) Nepal

(C) Zimbabwe

(D) Italy

5. According to the World Conservation Union Report, the number of plant species in India listed as threatened is—

(A) 247 plant species

(B) 250 plant species

(C) 275 plant species

(D) 255 plant species

6. Which of the following states passed a Bill in March 2008, amending the Registration Act 1908 to prohibit foreigners from buying land in the state—

(A) Kerala

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Goa

(D) Maharashtra

7. The renowned scientist John Wheeler who died in April 2008, was originally hailed from—

(A) Australia

(B) U.S.A.

(C) Finland

(D) Britain

8. Who received Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmanent and Development for 2007—

(A) Bill Gates

(B) Nelson Mandela

(C) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation

(D) Arthur C. Clarke

9. The 2008 UNESCO/Guillermo Cano World Press Freedom Prize awarded to —

(A) Lydia Cacho Ribeiro

(B) Anna Politkovskaya

(C) May Chidiac

(D) U Win Tin

10. Which of the following Indian players has not completed 10,000 runs in Test cricket—

(A) Rahul Dravid

(B) Sachin Tendulkar

(C) Sunil Gavaskar

(D) Virendra Sehwag

11. On March 26, 2008, NASA’s space shuttle which returned safely to Earth after completing 16 day mission to International Space Station was—

(A) Discovery

(B) Endeavour
11. (B) 12. (C)
(C) Columbia

(D) None of the above

12. Jules Verne is Europe’s—

(A) Space shuttle

(B) Missile shield system

(C) Biggest spacecraft

(D) Mission to Antarctica

13. India’s National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the country’s first—

(A) Dirrohoea map

(B) Malarial map

(C) Bird flu map

(D) Cancer map

14. ‘The World Is What It Is’ is the biography of—

(A) V. S. Naipal

(B) Khushwant Singh

(C) Amrita Preetam

(D) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

15. According to a World Bank Report India got remittances in 2007 worth—

(A) $ 30 billion

(B) $ 35 billion

(C) $ 25 billion

(D) $ 27 billion

16. The Summit of NATO (NORTH ATLANTIC TREATY) was held in April in—

(A) Romania

(B) Morocco

(C) Pakistan

(D) Indonesia

17. According to latest WHO report the number of estimated TB cases found every year in India is—

(A) 2•2 million
(B) 1•9 million

(C) 1•5 million

(D) 1•7 million

18. Tata purchased Jaguar and Rover from—

(A) Hyundai

(B) Maruti Suzuki

(C) Ford Motor

(D) None of the above

19. According to a survey, the country which has the highest number of internet users is—

(A) U.S.A.

(B) China

(C) Japan

(D) Germany

20. Which country has won the Women’s Asia Cup Cricket 2008 which was held in Colombo in the monthe of May 2008 ?

(A) Brisbane

(B) Melbourne

(C) Sydney

(D) Perth

21. According to Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (EAC) headed by C. Rangrajan the economic growth rate for 2008-09 will remain at—

(A) 8%

(B) 8•5%

(C) 9%

(D) 8•9%

22. The Pritzkar Architecture Prize has been won by—

(A) Bill Gates Foundation

(B) William Harvey

(C) Jea Nouvel

(D) None of the above

23. Which of the following cricket players has been banned for violating the player’s code of conduct by PCB ?

(A) Danish Kaneria

(B) Shoaib Malik

(C) Mohammad Yousuf

(D) Shoaib Akhtar

24. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has now been extended to all 604 districts of the country with a total budget outlay of—

(A) 18000 crore

(B) 16000 crore

(C) 15000 crore

(D) 14000 crore

25. Inflation which soared above 7% in the month of April is measured by—

(A) Consumer Price Index

(B) Retail Price Index

(C) Whole Sale Price Index

(D) Industrial Price Index

26. The winner of Bahrain Grand Prix is—

(A) Lewis Hamilton

(B) Kartikeyan

(C) Felipe Massa

(D) Robert Kubica

27. The winner of Miss India Earth 2008 is—

(A) Tanvi Vyas

(B) Suman Kaur

(C) Rashmi Sehgal

(D) Rani Sharma

28. In face of rising prices, Central Government has decided to set strategic Reserve of foodgrains over and above buffer stock. The limit of the reserve is—

(A) 10 million tonnes

(B) 7 million tonnes

(C) 6 million tonnes

(D) 5 million tonnes

29. Which of following newspapers/magazines won six Pulitzer prizes—

(A) The New York Times

(B) The Times Magazine

(C) The Washington Post

(D) The Guardian

30. ‘Leftism in India, 1917-1947’ is a book written by—

(A) S. R. Chaudhuri

(B) K. Kanwar

(C) R. Nagaswamy

(D) Sudipto Chatterjee

31. Recently President Pratibha Patil visited three countries. Which of the following was not the part of her trip—

(A) Argentina

(B) Chile

(C) Mexico

(D) Brazil

32. GJM stands for—

(A) General Justice Movement

(B) Gorkha Janmukti Morcha

(C) Gorkhaland Janshakti Morcha

(D) Gorkha Janjagriti Morcha

33. The elections of which of the following countries were marred by controversy—

(A) Italy

(B) Spain

(C) Zimbabwe

(D) Nepal

34. Supreme Court has upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing 27% for candidates belonging to—

(A) SCs

(B) STs

(C) OBC

(D) Minorities OBC

35. At which of the following places have the remains of early human history been found in excavation—

(A) Chittorgarh

(B) Bhavnagar

(C) Kolkata

(D) Karaikal

36. ‘Salwa Judum’ is—

(A) Terrorist organization

(B) A branch of naxalite

(C) Name of a police force

(D) An anti naxalite movement

37. When was Nepal declared a Secular Nation—

(A) in 2005

(B) in 2007

(C) in 2008

(D) in 2006

38. The Director General of UN Food and Agriculture Organisation of present is—

(A) Jacques Diouf

(B) Kundekeh K. Yumkella

(C) Jammel Al Hiyilan

(D) Michael Griffin

39. According to a research, stem cells from skin can treat—

(A) Alzhumer

(B) Schizophrenia

(C) Parkinson’s disease

(D) None of the above

40. When did the Olympic torch relay begin ?

(A) in 1950

(B) in 1952

(C) in 1953

(D) in 1963

Answers with Hints

1. (A) 2. (C)

3. (B) The Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty (START-II) is a treaty between Russia and U.S.A. for reducing their nuclear arsenals. The treaty is due to expire in 2009.

4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (C)

13. (B) India’s Vector Borne Disease Control Programme has prepared the country’s first malarial map identifying India’s 60 most malarial endemic districts that report over 50% of the country’s malaria’s cases.

14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C)

19. (B) 20. (A) India won fourth consecutive times in Women’s Asia Cup Cricket 21. (B)

22. (C) The Pritzkar Architecture Prize, considered to be equivalent of Nobel Prize for architecture has been won french architect Jea Nouvel for his creative experimentation in architecture.

23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D)

29. (C) The Washington Post has won six Pulitzer Prizes, including Public service award for its reporting on conditions of U.S. War Veterans.

30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C)

34. (C) The Supreme Court on April 10, 2008 upheld the law enacted in 2006 providing a quota of 27 per cent to the other Backward Classes in Central Educational Institutions.

35. (C)

36. (D) Salva Judam is an antinaxalite movement formed by group of people against attack from maxalites. The movement started from Dantewada district (Chhattisgarh).

37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)