On the  Demand of various person I am posting some synonyms which are very to the commutative exam.

(SYNONYMS)

Directions (For the 17 items which follow): Each of the following 17 items consists of a word or group of words in capital letters, followed by four or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.

1. COUNTERVAILING
(a) Argumentative
(b) Compensating
(c) Crying
(d) Complaining

2. TO DEBILITATE
(a) To outlaw
(b) To support
(c) To weaken
(d) To honour

3. FERRET
(a) Steal
(b) Search
(c) Forget
(d) Fight

4. PECUNIARY
(a) Pertaining to money
(b) Pertaining to Politics
(c) Pertaining to Geography
(d) Pertaining to History

5. REPRISAL
(a) Loneliness (b) Retaliation
(c) Remuneration (d) Pleasure

6. PROPRIETY
(a) Rightness
(b) Brand name
(c) Cultivate land
(d) Market share

7. CAVIL
(a) To play
(b) To complain
(c) To prepare
(d) To cut a joke

8. EVINCE
(a) To learn
(b) To exhibit
(c) To resist
(d) To become infirm

9. INCENSE
(a) To become angry
(b) To support someone
(c) To become relevant
(d) To introduce a new topic

10. ATTENUATE
(a) To weaken
(b) To celebrate
(c) To store
(d) To ‘swim

11. ASCETIC
(a) Fashionable
(b) Austere
(c) Articulate
(d) Athletic

12. ARABLE
(a) Tolerable
(b) Suitable for ploughing
(c) Likeable
(d) Ardent

13. SECEDE
(a) To stop
(b) To arrest
(c) To flow
(d) To withdraw

14. PROFFER
(a) To apologize
(b) To appoint
(c) To disappear
(d) To offer

15. PREVARICATE
(a) To evade
(b) To work hard
(c) To steal
(d) To demonstrate

16. SPECULATE
(a) To embezzle
(b) To guess
(c) To study deeply
(d) To store

17. PECKISH
(a) Angry
(b) Impudent
(c) Hungry
(d) Smart

ANSWERS: 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c)

PART II

which follow): Each of the following 17 items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words.  Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

1. PEDAGOGICAL
(a) Related to evolutionary process
(b) Pertaining to teaching methods
(c) Pertaining to dictatorship
(d) Pertaining to social customs

2. SEMANTIC
(a) Mild-mannered
(b) Pertaining to financial matters
(c) Pertaining to meaning of words
(d) Tenable

3. PHLEGMATIC
(a) Thin
(b) Even-tempered
(c) Worldly
(d) Huge

4. EFFRONTERY
(a) Affirmation
(b) Commentary
(c) Rudeness
(d) Compliance

5. PREMONITION
(a) Sadness
(b) Strength
(c) Warning
(d) Advice

6. RETICENCE
(a) Modesty
(b) Caution
(c) Cognizance
(d) Tendency to keep silent

7. BANAL
(a) Hostile
(b) Commonplace
(c) Forbidden
(d) Genial

8. FRUGAL
(a) Quiet
(b) Economical
(c) Shy
(d) Generous

9. QUAGMIRE
(a) Rugged cliff
(b) Lacking in morals
(c) Quizzical
(d) Whirlpool

10. CELERITY
(a) Grace
(b) Fame
(c) Slipperiness
(d) Speed

11. REPRISAL
(a) Surprise
(b) Award
(c) Revision
(d) Retaliation

12. CONGENITAL
(a) Compulsory
(b) Dating from birth
(c) Official
(d) Pertaining to commerce

13. COMMISERATION
(a) Sympathy
(b) Simplification
(c) Slip of tongue
(d) Arrogance

14. INSIDIOUS
(a) Substantial
(b) Unstable
(c) Instantaneous
(d) Cunning

15. BREATHTAKING
(a) Tiring
(b) Costly
(c) Spectacular
(d) Trick

16. PREPOSTEROUS
(a) Predefined
(b) Obvious
(c) Absurd
(d) Arduous

17. SLOTHFUL
(a) Fraught with risk
(b) Lazy
(c) Revengeful
(d) Lenient

ANSWERS:  1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b)

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1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third,

Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the

following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be

made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed,

give your answer as ‘Y’.

(A) I

(B) B

(C) L

(D) X

(E) Y

Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a

group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) Stem

(B) Tree

(C) Root

(D) Branch
(E) Leaf

Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the

letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.

How is SLIT written in that code ?

(A) UTGR

(B) UTKR

(C) TUGR

(D) RUGT

(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is

called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’

and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?

(A) Potato

(B) Guava

(C) Apple

(D) Banana

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order,

what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the

right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four
(E) None

Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of

the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the

letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7***3$

then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?

(A) 7&8***

(B) &7***8
(C) 7***&8

(D) 7&***8

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which

has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the

English alphabets ?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la

pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots
could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?

(A) na

(B) ka

(C) bo

(D) so

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

*Directions*—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three

statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take

the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from

commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the

given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding

commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and

*Give answer—*

(A) if only conclusion I is true.

(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.

(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true

(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. *Statements :* All stars are suns.

Some suns are planets.

All planets are satellites.

*Conclusions :*

I. Some satellites are stars.

II. No star is a satellite.

Ans : (C)

12. *Statements :* All fishes are birds.

All birds are rats.

All rats are cows.

*Conclusions :*

I. All birds are cows

II. All rats are fishes

Ans : (A)

13. *Statements :* All curtains are rods.

Some rods are sheets.

Some sheets are pillows.

*Conclusions :

*I. Some pillows are rods.

II. Some rods are curtains.

Ans : (B)

14. *Statements :* Some walls are windows.

Some windows are doors.

All doors are roofs.

*Conclusions :

*I. Some doors are walls.

II. No roof is a window.

Ans : (D)

15. *Statements :* All switches are plugs.

Some plugs are bulbs.

All bulbs are sockets.
*Conclusions :*

I. Some sockets are plugs.

II. Some plugs are switches.

Ans : (E)

*Directions*—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the

questions, which follow :

489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which

of the following will be the second highest number ?

(A) 489

(B) 541

(C) 654

(D) 953

(E) 783

Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order,

which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489

(B) 541

(C) 654

(D) 953

(E) 783

Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of

lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after

adding one to each of the numbers ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

(E) 5

Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following

numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest
number and the second digit of the highest number ?

(A) Zero

(B) 3

(C) 1

(D) 4

(E) 2

Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged,

which will be the third highest number ?

(A) 489

(B) 541

(C) 654

(D) 953

(E) 783

Ans : (D)

*Directions*—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer

the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’

‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’

‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?

(A) P + Q – S

(B) P ÷ Q × S

(C) P ÷ Q + S

(D) P × Q ÷ S

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?

(A) Sister

(B) Wife

(C) Son

(D) Daughter

(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?

(A) Mother

(B) Father

(C) Son

(D) Brother

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?

(A) P × S ÷ T

(B) P ÷ S × T

(C) P – S ÷ T

(D) P + T ÷ S

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?

(A) Daughter
(B) Sister

(C) Mother

(D) Can’t be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

*Directions*—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is

given followed by four combinations of number/symbol *lettered *(A), (B),

(C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given

below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which

represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your

answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None

of these :

*Letters* *#* Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E

*Number/ Symbol* *#* 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

*Conditions :*
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be

coded as the code of the vowel.

(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for

the first and the last are to be interchanged.

(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the

fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN

(A) 9©$7©%

(B) ©9$7%©

(C) 91$78%

(D) %1$789

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG

(A) #89*£$

(B) #89*£#

(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS

(A) 92*#%4

(B) 924#*%

(C) 92*#%9

(D) 42*#%4

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL

(A) #£$21*

(B) £$21*3

(C) £$21*#

(D) #£$21#

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA

(A) 6@9%#2

(B) 2@9%#6

(C) 2@9%#2

(D) 2©9%#2

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

*Directions*—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer

these questions.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies

namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are

only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for

different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in

each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a

doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who

does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in

company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G
is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the

same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company

Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only

two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?

(A) Y

(B) X

(C) Z

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?

(A) D and C

(B) A and B

(C) A and E

(D) H and F

(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?

(A) C–Z-Engineer

(B) E–X–Doctor

(C) H–X–HR

(D) C–Y–Engineer

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?

(A) H

(B) E

(C) C

(D) Either E or C

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?

(A) A and D
(B) B and D

(C) D and G

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

Some test papers for the exams

1.If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?
(a)15
(b)12
(c)18
(d)10

Ans. (b)

2.If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

(a)12
(b)8
(c)16
(d)6

Ans. (b)

3. (1/10)18 – (1/10)20 = ?
(a) 99/1020
(b) 99/10
(c) 0.9
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

4.Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins
and Pipe C can
empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work
together, find the time
taken to fill the tank
(a) 17 1/7 mins
(b) 20 mins
(c) 8 mins
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

5. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9
hours a day.How
many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the
job?
(a) 8 hrs
(b) 7 1/2 hrs
(c) 7 hrs
(d) 9 hrs

Ans. (b)

6. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38
and product 1728
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 8
(d) none of these

Ans. (c)

7. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms
downstream in 4
hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the
speed of the
water current?
(a) 1/2 kmph
(b) 7/12 kmph
(c) 5 kmph
(d) none of these

Ans. (b)

8. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of
side 12m by a rope
7m long.Find the area it can graze?
(a) 38.5 sq.m
(b) 155 sq.m
(c) 144 sq.m
(d) 19.25 sq.m

Ans. (a)

9. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a
tube station. He
found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30
seconds to
reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs
he would only
require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time
is measured from
the moment the top step begins to descend to the
time he steps off
the last step at the bottom, find out the height of
the stair way in
steps?

Ans.46 steps.

10. The average age of 10 members of a committee is
the same as it was
4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced
by a young
member. Find how much younger is the new member ?

Ans.40 years.

11. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and
c respectively;
and container A is full of water while the other two
are empty. If
from container A water is poured into container B
which becomes 1/3
full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how
much water is
left in container A?

12. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a
rectangle. AB = 10
and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?

Ans. AE = 10.

13. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the
circle at A and
B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to
tangent PA. If AC = 6
cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what
is the length of
the chord BC?

Ans. BC = 4 cm.

15 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary
pack of cards.
Find the probability that they will consist of a king,
a queen and an ace.

Ans. 64/2210.

16. A number of cats got together and decided to kill
between them
999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of
mice. Each cat
killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats
do you think
there were ?

Ans. 991.

17. If Log2 x – 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the
value / values of
x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.

18. The square of a two digit number is divided by
half the number.
After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then
divided by 2.
The digits of the resulting number are the same as
those in the
original number, but they are in reverse order. The
ten’s place of
the original number is equal to twice the difference
between its
digits. What is the number?

Ans. 46

19.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner
that there shall
be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise
coins.?

Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten
paise coins, and 1
twenty-five paise coins.

20.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each
hour, it hops
3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take
the monkey to
reach the top?

Ans.18 hours.

We are presenting you the some sample paper for the various competitive exams.

1. ‘Food For Oil’ programme running in which of the following countries was in news recently ?
(A) Kuwait
(B) Iran
(C) Iraq
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these

2. The ‘Supreme Court of India’ recently declared which of the following proclamations unconstitutional ?
(A) Formation of an enquiry commission to probe Volcker Reports
(B) Dissolution of Bihar Assembly
(C) Setting up another commission in place of Phukan Commission
(D) Setting up a commission headed by an eminent diplomat to investigate recent Bomb Blast in Delhi instead of allowing CBI to do the same
(E) None of these

3. Which of the following is true about the recent discussion on the tariff reduction formulae proposed at the WTO ?
(A) India accepted the formulae presented by South Africa as it more or less matches with the formulae presented by it. South Africa was given the responsibility to find an amicably acceptable solution to the same
(B) India along with several others presented a formulae which was accepted by the USA but the EU refused to accept it
(C) USA, Australia and EU presented a formulae which is not acceptable to India
(D) India wishes to resign from the membership of the WTO as it is not ready sacrifice the interests of the agriculturists of India
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following European Countries was recently in news as violent riots broke out there ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) Spain
(D) France
(E) None of these

5. Sunil Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Year’ by which of the following news paper/magazines ?
(A) Businessworld
(B) Business India
(C) Economic Times
(D) Business Standard
(E) None of these

6. Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann won the ‘Nobel Prize-2005’ for their contribution in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Economics
(C) Chemistry
(D) Literature
(E) None of these

]7. India, recently decided to conduct a joint air exercise with which of the following countries ?
(The exercise was in news recently as a group of people was not in favour of such joint ventures)
(A) Britain
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) France
(E) USA

8. India wants that the UN Security Council must have at least—
(A) 5 permanent members including India and China
(B) 7 permanent members including India and China
(C) 9 permanent members including India and China
(D) 11 permanent members including India and Pakistan
(E) 15 permanent members in both permanent and non-permanent category

9. Which of the following states was badly hit by a killer earthquake in October 2005 ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
(E) Jammu & Kashmir

10. R. K. Surati who won four Gold Medals in a Championship held in Pretoria recently is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Rifle Shooting
(B) Archery
(C) Power lifting
(D) 400 mt. Race
(E) None of these

11. Which of the following companies is not an IT/Software company ?
(A) Infosys
(B) Wipro
(C) NIIT
(D) Rolex
(E) All are IT/Software Companies

12. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
(A) NPA
(B) NAV
(C) Liquidity
(D) NAFTA
(E) IPO

13. Rahul Dravid was appointed the Captain of the Indian Cricket Team for one day series against which of the following ?
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) South Africa
(3) Australia
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) (1), (2) and (3) all

14. ‘Nalchik’ which was recently in news, is a city in—
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) China
(E) Russia

15. Anju Bobby George won Gold Medal in 16th Asian Atheletics Meet held recently. The meet was organized in—
(A) South Korea
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these

16. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the Central Information Commission (CIC) set up recently under the Right to Information Act ?
(A) Sam Pitroda
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) Wajahat Habibullah
(E) None of these

17. The 13th SAARC meet was held in—
(A) Dhaka
(B) Kathmandu
(C) Islamabad
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these

18. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Mathematical Theory of Black Holes’ ? (The author is regarded a great astrophysicists of the modern times)
(A) Dr. C. V. Raman
(B) Dr. J. V. Narlikar
(C) Dr. S. Chandrashekhar
(D) Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
(E) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai

19. Asian Junior Table Tennis Championship matches were played recently in—
(A) China
(B) India
(C) South Korea
(D) Singapore
(E) None of these

20. Mr. Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri is the—
(A) External Affairs Minister of Pakistan
(B) External Affairs Minister of Bangladesh
(C) Home Minister of Pakistan
(D) Home Minister of Bangladesh
(E) None of these

21. What is India’s position in terms of the number of Internet users in the world ?
(A) 3rd
(B) 4th
(C) 5th
(D) 10th
(E) None of these

22. Which of the following countries had emerged as World’s largest Cell phone maker ? (As per the figures available upto April 2005)
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) Japan
(D) China
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following schemes is being implemented in rural areas which provides an assured employment of 100 days to a willing youth in India ?
(A) Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)
(B) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
(C) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
(D) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
(E) None of these

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Doctor Zhivago’ ?
(A) Maxim Gorky
(B) Boris Pasternak
(C) Aldous Huxley
(D) George Eliot
(E) None of these

25. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of ‘Bharat Ratna’ ?
(A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Prof. Amartya Sen
(E) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

26. Justice Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal was the new Chief Justice of—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Mumbai High Court
(C) Delhi High Court
(D) Kolkata High Court
(E) Supreme Court of India

27. Ramon Magsaysay Awards are not given in which of the following categories ?
(A) Government Service
(B) Community Leadership
(C) Journalism
(D) Public Service
(E) Music

28. Harold Pinter, who won the Nobel Prize for Literature, is a citizen of—
(A) China
(B) Britain
(C) USA
(D) Russia
(E) Canada

29. Which of the following countries is not the member of SAARC ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Maldives
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Surinam
(E) All are members

30. Veselin Tapolev who became the World Champion recently, is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Chess
(B) Golf
(C) Snooker
(D) Badminton
(E) None of these

31. Which of the following is not an anti inflationary measure of the Government ?
(A) Strict fiscal discipline
(B) Rationalization of Excise Duties
(C) Strengthening Public Distribution System
(D) Issuing new currency notes/coins
(E) Rationalization of Import Duties

32. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is in—
(A) Vienna
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) Nebraska
(E) None of these

33. ‘Kyat’ is the monetary unit of—
(A) North Korea
(B) Israel
(C) Indonesia
(D) Mongolia
(E) Myanmar

34. Which of the following is the full form of ‘PPP’ ?
(A) Purchase Price and Power
(B) Producer Price and Power
(C) Poverty, Production and Purchases
(D) Purchasing Power Parity
(E) None of these

35. Which of the following universities of North-East states has now the status of a Central University ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Shilong
(C) Guwahati
(D) Mizoram
(E) None of these

36. Who amongst the following is not a member of G-8 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) Japan
(D) France
(E) USA

37. ‘Quartz’, which is used in ornaments or in industries, is a crystal containing—
(A) Silicon Dioxide
(B) Platinum Dioxide
(C) Silver Chloride
(D) Fluoro Carbon
(E) None of these

38. A farmer engaged in Organic Farming will never use which of the following manures ?
(A) Compost
(B) Sewage Sludge
(C) Cow dung
(D) Urea
(E) None of these

39. Which of the following is a Cricket related term ?
(A) Push in
(B) Scissor Kick
(C) Hook
(D) Smash
(E) Dribble

40. Nirmal Verma who died recently was a famous—
(A) Painter
(B) Classical singer
(C) Author
(D) Politician
(E) Social Worker

41. Which of the following is not a Banking/Finance related term ?
(A) Current Account
(B) Pay Order
(C) Par Value
(D) Short Position
(E) Infringement

42. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the area of music ?
(A) Saraswati Samman
(B) Tansen Samman
(C) Vyas Samman
(D) Borlaugh Award
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following is a major jute producing state ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
(E) West Bengal

44. The study of the origin of universe is known as—
(A) Cosmology
(B) Chronology
(C) Geology
(D) Orography
(E) None of these

45. ‘Radcliffe Line’ divides the borders of—
(A) India-China
(B) China-Russia
(C) Russia-Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan-Afghanistan
(E) India-Pakistan

46. Which of the following is the currency of Saudi Arabia ?
(A) Taka
(B) Rial
(C) Baht
(D) Ruble
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is a book written by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam ?
(A) Wings of Fire
(B) The Transparent Mind
(C) A Brief History of Time
(D) Indian Modernity
(E) None of these

48. The RBI revised the Reverse Repo Rate recently by 25 basis points. The present rate is—
(A) 4%
(B) 4•25%
(C) 5%
(D) 5•25%
(E) 6•00%

49. Which of the following is not a famous ‘Tiger Reserve’ in India ?
(A) Sunderbans
(B) Kaziranga
(C) Sariska
(D) Kanha
(E) None of these

50. ‘Subroto Cup’ is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Cricket
(E) None of these

Answers with Explanation

1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (C) Sunil Bharti Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Award’ by the Economic Times news paper in the year 2005.
6. (B)The Nobel Prize winners in Economics in the field of ‘Game Theory Analysis’ in the year 2005 were Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann (Jointly).
7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (E) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (E) 14. (E) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A)18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (E) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A)
38. (D) For Organic Farming, fertilizer’s use is restricted like Urea, DAP, MOP etc. Only organic sources—conventional / FYM, Compost etc. and non-conventional organic sources like sewage, Municipal Waste, Press mud, coir pith etc. are being used.
39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (B) 50. (A)

Computer knowledge Expected Solved Paper

1. A Compiler is ____
(A) A combination of computer hardware
(B) A program which translates from one high-level language to another
(C) A program which translates from one high-level to a machine level
(D)None of these
Ans : C

2. When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used for converting the keystroke into the corresponding bits
(A)ANSI
(B) ASCII
(C) EBCDIC
() ISO
Ans : A

3. A Pixel is -
(A) A computer program that draws picture
(B) A picture stored in secondary memory
(C) The smallest resolvable part of a picture
(D) None of these
Ans : C

4. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment
(A) Keyboard
(B) Mouse
(C) Joystick
(D) Track ball
Ans : B

5. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
(A) 2
(B) 10
(C) 16
(D) 32
Ans : A
6. Which of the following is not an output device?
(A)Scanner
(B) Printer
(C) Flat Screen
(D) Touch Screen
Ans : D

7. Which of the following devices have a limitation that we can only information to it but cannot erase or modify it
(A) Floppy Disk
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Tape Drive
(D) CDROM
Ans : D

8. Which technology is used in Compact disks?
(A) Mechanical
(B) Electrical
(C) Electro Magnetic
(D) Laser
Ans : D

9. Which of the following storage
devices can store maximum amount of data?
(A) Floppy Disk
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Compact Disk
(D) Magneto Optic Disk
Ans : B

10. Which of the following is the largest manufacturer of Hard Disk Drives?
(A) IBM
(B) Segate
(C) Microsoft
(D) 3M
Ans : B

11. The memory location address are limited to
(A) 00000 to 9ffff(16)
(B) 00001 to 9ffff(16)
(C) 00010 to 9ffff(16)
(D) 10000 to 9ffff(16)
Ans : A

12. The programs which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is known as
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Firmware
(D) ROMware
Ans : C

13. Memory is made up of
(A) Set of wires
(B) Set of circuits
(C) Large number of cells
(D) All of these
Ans : C

14. Primary memory stores
(A) Data alone
(B) Programs alone
(C) Results alone
(D) All of these
Ans : D

15. EPROM can be used for
(A) Erasing the contents of ROM
(B) Reconstructing the contents of ROM
(C) Erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(DS) Duplicating ROM
Ans : C

16. Which device can understand difference between data & programs?
(A)Input device
(B) Output device
(C) Memory
(D) Microprocessor
Ans : D

17. The contents of information are stored in
(A) Memory data register
(B) Memory address register
(C) Memory access register
(D) Memory arithmetic register
Ans : A

18. Memory unit is one part of
(A) Input device
(B) Control unit
(C) Output device
(D) Central Processing Unit
Ans : D

19. Algorithm and Flow chart help us to
(A) Know the memory capacity
(B) Identify the base of a number system
(C) Direct the output to a printer
(D) Specify the problem completely and clearly
Ans : D

20. Which of the following is not a valid size of a Floppy Disk?
(A) 8″
(B) 5 1/4″
(C) 3 1/2″
(D) 5 1/2″
Computer knowledge Expected Solved Paper

1. A Compiler is ____
(A) A combination of computer hardware
(B) A program which translates from one high-level language to another
(C) A program which translates from one high-level to a machine level
(D)None of these
Ans : C

2. When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used for converting the keystroke into the corresponding bits
(A)ANSI
(B) ASCII
(C) EBCDIC
() ISO
Ans : A

3. A Pixel is -
(A) A computer program that draws picture
(B) A picture stored in secondary memory
(C) The smallest resolvable part of a picture
(D) None of these
Ans : C

4. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment
(A) Keyboard
(B) Mouse
(C) Joystick
(D) Track ball
Ans : B

5. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
(A) 2
(B) 10
(C) 16
(D) 32
Ans : A

6. Which of the following is not an output device?
(A)Scanner
(B) Printer
(C) Flat Screen
(D) Touch Screen
Ans : D

7. Which of the following devices have a limitation that we can only information to it but cannot erase or modify it
(A) Floppy Disk
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Tape Drive
(D) CDROM
Ans : D

8. Which technology is used in Compact disks?
(A) Mechanical
(B) Electrical
(C) Electro Magnetic
(D) Laser
Ans : D

9. Which of the following storage
devices can store maximum amount of data?
(A) Floppy Disk
(B) Hard Disk
(C) Compact Disk
(D) Magneto Optic Disk
Ans : B

10. Which of the following is the largest manufacturer of Hard Disk Drives?
(A) IBM
(B) Segate
(C) Microsoft
(D) 3M
Ans : B

11. The memory location address are limited to
(A) 00000 to 9ffff(16)
(B) 00001 to 9ffff(16)
(C) 00010 to 9ffff(16)
(D) 10000 to 9ffff(16)
Ans : A

12. The programs which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is known as
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Firmware
(D) ROMware
Ans : C

13. Memory is made up of
(A) Set of wires
(B) Set of circuits
(C) Large number of cells
(D) All of these
Ans : C

14. Primary memory stores
(A) Data alone
(B) Programs alone
(C) Results alone
(D) All of these
Ans : D

15. EPROM can be used for
(A) Erasing the contents of ROM
(B) Reconstructing the contents of ROM
(C) Erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
(DS) Duplicating ROM
Ans : C

16. Which device can understand difference between data & programs?
(A)Input device
(B) Output device
(C) Memory
(D) Microprocessor
Ans : D

17. The contents of information are stored in
(A) Memory data register
(B) Memory address register
(C) Memory access register
(D) Memory arithmetic register
Ans : A

18. Memory unit is one part of
(A) Input device
(B) Control unit
(C) Output device
(D) Central Processing Unit
Ans : D

19. Algorithm and Flow chart help us to
(A) Know the memory capacity
(B) Identify the base of a number system
(C) Direct the output to a printer
(D) Specify the problem completely and clearly
Ans : D

20. Which of the following is not a valid size of a Floppy Disk?
(A) 8″
(B) 5 1/4″
(C) 3 1/2″
(D) 5 1/2″
Ans : B

Gramin Bank Officer Solved Paper
GENERAL AWARENESS

1. ‘Food For Oil’ programme running in which of the following countries was in news recently ?
(A) Kuwait
(B) Iran
(C) Iraq
(D) Lebanon
(E) None of these

2. The ‘Supreme Court of India’ recently declared which of the following proclamations unconstitutional ?
(A) Formation of an enquiry commission to probe Volcker Reports
(B) Dissolution of Bihar Assembly
(C) Setting up another commission in place of Phukan Commission
(D) Setting up a commission headed by an eminent diplomat to investigate recent Bomb Blast in Delhi instead of allowing CBI to do the same
(E) None of these

3. Which of the following is true about the recent discussion on the tariff reduction formulae proposed at the WTO ?
(A) India accepted the formulae presented by South Africa as it more or less matches with the formulae presented by it. South Africa was given the responsibility to find an amicably acceptable solution to the same
(B) India along with several others presented a formulae which was accepted by the USA but the EU refused to accept it
(C) USA, Australia and EU presented a formulae which is not acceptable to India
(D) India wishes to resign from the membership of the WTO as it is not ready sacrifice the interests of the agriculturists of India
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following European Countries was recently in news as violent riots broke out there ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) Spain
(D) France
(E) None of these

5. Sunil Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Year’ by which of the following news paper/magazines ?
(A) Businessworld
(B) Business India
(C) Economic Times
(D) Business Standard
(E) None of these

6. Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann won the ‘Nobel Prize-2005’ for their contribution in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Economics
(C) Chemistry
(D) Literature
(E) None of these

]7. India, recently decided to conduct a joint air exercise with which of the following countries ?
(The exercise was in news recently as a group of people was not in favour of such joint ventures)
(A) Britain
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) France
(E) USA

8. India wants that the UN Security Council must have at least—
(A) 5 permanent members including India and China
(B) 7 permanent members including India and China
(C) 9 permanent members including India and China
(D) 11 permanent members including India and Pakistan
(E) 15 permanent members in both permanent and non-permanent category

9. Which of the following states was badly hit by a killer earthquake in October 2005 ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
(E) Jammu & Kashmir

10. R. K. Surati who won four Gold Medals in a Championship held in Pretoria recently is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Rifle Shooting
(B) Archery
(C) Power lifting
(D) 400 mt. Race
(E) None of these

11. Which of the following companies is not an IT/Software company ?
(A) Infosys
(B) Wipro
(C) NIIT
(D) Rolex
(E) All are IT/Software Companies

12. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
(A) NPA
(B) NAV
(C) Liquidity
(D) NAFTA
(E) IPO

13. Rahul Dravid was appointed the Captain of the Indian Cricket Team for one day series against which of the following ?
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) South Africa
(3) Australia
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) (1), (2) and (3) all

14. ‘Nalchik’ which was recently in news, is a city in—
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) China
(E) Russia

15. Anju Bobby George won Gold Medal in 16th Asian Atheletics Meet held recently. The meet was organized in—
(A) South Korea
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these

16. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the Central Information Commission (CIC) set up recently under the Right to Information Act ?
(A) Sam Pitroda
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) Wajahat Habibullah
(E) None of these

17. The 13th SAARC meet was held in—
(A) Dhaka
(B) Kathmandu
(C) Islamabad
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these

18. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Mathematical Theory of Black Holes’ ? (The author is regarded a great astrophysicists of the modern times)
(A) Dr. C. V. Raman
(B) Dr. J. V. Narlikar
(C) Dr. S. Chandrashekhar
(D) Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
(E) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai

19. Asian Junior Table Tennis Championship matches were played recently in—
(A) China
(B) India
(C) South Korea
(D) Singapore
(E) None of these

20. Mr. Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri is the—
(A) External Affairs Minister of Pakistan
(B) External Affairs Minister of Bangladesh
(C) Home Minister of Pakistan
(D) Home Minister of Bangladesh
(E) None of these

21. What is India’s position in terms of the number of Internet users in the world ?
(A) 3rd
(B) 4th
(C) 5th
(D) 10th
(E) None of these

22. Which of the following countries had emerged as World’s largest Cell phone maker ? (As per the figures available upto April 2005)
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) Japan
(D) China
(E) None of these

23. Which of the following schemes is being implemented in rural areas which provides an assured employment of 100 days to a willing youth in India ?
(A) Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)
(B) National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
(C) Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
(D) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)
(E) None of these

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Doctor Zhivago’ ?
(A) Maxim Gorky
(B) Boris Pasternak
(C) Aldous Huxley
(D) George Eliot
(E) None of these

25. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of ‘Bharat Ratna’ ?
(A) Pt. Ravishankar
(B) Lata Mangeshkar
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Prof. Amartya Sen
(E) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

26. Justice Yogesh Kumar Sabharwal was the new Chief Justice of—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Mumbai High Court
(C) Delhi High Court
(D) Kolkata High Court
(E) Supreme Court of India

27. Ramon Magsaysay Awards are not given in which of the following categories ?
(A) Government Service
(B) Community Leadership
(C) Journalism
(D) Public Service
(E) Music

28. Harold Pinter, who won the Nobel Prize for Literature, is a citizen of—
(A) China
(B) Britain
(C) USA
(D) Russia
(E) Canada

29. Which of the following countries is not the member of SAARC ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Maldives
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Surinam
(E) All are members

30. Veselin Tapolev who became the World Champion recently, is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Chess
(B) Golf
(C) Snooker
(D) Badminton
(E) None of these

31. Which of the following is not an anti inflationary measure of the Government ?
(A) Strict fiscal discipline
(B) Rationalization of Excise Duties
(C) Strengthening Public Distribution System
(D) Issuing new currency notes/coins
(E) Rationalization of Import Duties

32. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization (WTO) is in—
(A) Vienna
(B) Geneva
(C) New York
(D) Nebraska
(E) None of these

33. ‘Kyat’ is the monetary unit of—
(A) North Korea
(B) Israel
(C) Indonesia
(D) Mongolia
(E) Myanmar

34. Which of the following is the full form of ‘PPP’ ?
(A) Purchase Price and Power
(B) Producer Price and Power
(C) Poverty, Production and Purchases
(D) Purchasing Power Parity
(E) None of these

35. Which of the following universities of North-East states has now the status of a Central University ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Shilong
(C) Guwahati
(D) Mizoram
(E) None of these

36. Who amongst the following is not a member of G-8 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) Japan
(D) France
(E) USA

37. ‘Quartz’, which is used in ornaments or in industries, is a crystal containing—
(A) Silicon Dioxide
(B) Platinum Dioxide
(C) Silver Chloride
(D) Fluoro Carbon
(E) None of these

38. A farmer engaged in Organic Farming will never use which of the following manures ?
(A) Compost
(B) Sewage Sludge
(C) Cow dung
(D) Urea
(E) None of these

39. Which of the following is a Cricket related term ?
(A) Push in
(B) Scissor Kick
(C) Hook
(D) Smash
(E) Dribble

40. Nirmal Verma who died recently was a famous—
(A) Painter
(B) Classical singer
(C) Author
(D) Politician
(E) Social Worker

41. Which of the following is not a Banking/Finance related term ?
(A) Current Account
(B) Pay Order
(C) Par Value
(D) Short Position
(E) Infringement

42. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the area of music ?
(A) Saraswati Samman
(B) Tansen Samman
(C) Vyas Samman
(D) Borlaugh Award
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following is a major jute producing state ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
(E) West Bengal

44. The study of the origin of universe is known as—
(A) Cosmology
(B) Chronology
(C) Geology
(D) Orography
(E) None of these

45. ‘Radcliffe Line’ divides the borders of—
(A) India-China
(B) China-Russia
(C) Russia-Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan-Afghanistan
(E) India-Pakistan

46. Which of the following is the currency of Saudi Arabia ?
(A) Taka
(B) Rial
(C) Baht
(D) Ruble
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following is a book written by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam ?
(A) Wings of Fire
(B) The Transparent Mind
(C) A Brief History of Time
(D) Indian Modernity
(E) None of these

48. The RBI revised the Reverse Repo Rate recently by 25 basis points. The present rate is—
(A) 4%
(B) 4•25%
(C) 5%
(D) 5•25%
(E) 6•00%

49. Which of the following is not a famous ‘Tiger Reserve’ in India ?
(A) Sunderbans
(B) Kaziranga
(C) Sariska
(D) Kanha
(E) None of these

50. ‘Subroto Cup’ is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Cricket
(E) None of these

Answers with Explanation

1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (C) Sunil Bharti Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Award’ by the Economic Times news paper in the year 2005.
6. (B)The Nobel Prize winners in Economics in the field of ‘Game Theory Analysis’ in the year 2005 were Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann (Jointly).
7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (E) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (E) 14. (E) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A)18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (E) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A)
38. (D) For Organic Farming, fertilizer’s use is restricted like Urea, DAP, MOP etc. Only organic sources—conventional / FYM, Compost etc. and non-conventional organic sources like sewage, Municipal Waste, Press mud, coir pith etc. are being used.
39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (E) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (B) 50. (A)

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In a great Palace by the sea, there once dwelt a very rich old lord, who had only one little grand daughter, whose face he had never seen in all her life. He hated her bitterly, because at her birth his daughter died; and when the old nurse brought him the baby, he swore, that he would never look on her face as long as she lived. So he turned his back, and sat by his window looking out over the sea, shedding tears for his lost daughter. Meanwhile, his grand daughter grew up with no one to care for her, or clothe her. An old nurse would sometimes give her a dish of scraps from the kitchen, or an torn dress from the rag-bag. Soon she became known as “Tattercoats”, amongst all as she always wore torn out dresses. And so she grew up, with little to eat or wear, spending her days in the fields and lanes, with only a herd of parrots for a companion.

One day, people told each other that the King was travelling to their town and was to give a great party to all the lords and ladies of the country, where the Prince, his only son, was to choose a wife. Tattercoats had heard of the event in the town. She was excited as she had never been to a party. However, she was heartbroken when she soon realized that her grandfather would never take her to the party.

The parrots listened to her story and proposed that they should go together into the town but she looked sorrowfully down at her rags and bare feet. She said that in such attire, the king’s men would never let her enter the town. She sat under a tree crying and sobbing. Just then a handsome young man, splendidly dressed, rode up and stopped to ask the way to the town as he had lost it and had been wandering in the area for a long time without a clue about the directions. Tattercoats explained the way to the town to him. The young man was charmed by her beauty and simplicity but soon realized that she was upset. On asking the reason the parrots told him the whole story. The young man felt sad for Tattercoats. He returned the next day with a beautiful gown and jewels and gave her so that she could wear these to the king’s party. Tattercoats looked astonished and refused to accept the expensive gifts. The young man however insisted that she must accept these as a token of thanks for helping him finding the way to the town when he was lost.

Finally when night came, the hall in the castle was full of light and music and the lords and ladies were dancing before the King. Soon Tattercoats entered, followed by the flock of chirpy parrots. She walked straight up the party hall while the ladies whispered, the lords laughed, and the King seated at the far end stared in amazement. But as they came in front of the throne, a young man rose from beside the King and came to greet her. Much to Tattercoat’s surprise he was the same young man whom she had told the way to the town. Taking her by the hand he turned to the King.

“Father !” he said, for he was the Prince himself, “I have made my choice, and here is my bride, the loveliest girl in all the land, and the sweetest as well !” The king was proud of his son’s decision and as he rose to greet his daughter-in-law, the trumpets sounded loudly in honour of the new Princess.

The couple lived happily ever after. The parrot herd continued to be the best companion of the princess. Her grandfather, however, bound by his vow could never see his granddaughter – Tattercoats – the princess in his entire life.

1. What did the handsome young man ask Tattercoats on his way to the town ?
(A) He asked her to accompany him to the town.
(B) He asked her to accept the gifts he had brought for her.
(C) He promised her that the prince would choose her as his wife during the party.
(D) He asked for the directions to the town as he had lost his way.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. What was the King’s intention in throwing a party in the town ?
(A) To please the rich landlords and ladies of the town.
(B) So that his only son could select a wife for himself.
(C) He was happy that his son had chosen Tattercoats as his wife.
(D) He wanted to visit the town as he had never visited it before.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. Why did Tattercoats cry even when the parrots offered to accompany her to the King’s party ?
(A) She did not have good clothes and shoes to wear for the occasion.
(B) She feared that her grandfather would punish her for attending the party.
(C) She had lost her way to the town on her way to the town.
(D) The lords and the ladies at the party had made fun of her appearance.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) The rich landlord finally forgave her granddaughter.
(B) Tattercoats always had a comfortable childhood since her grandfather was a wealthy landlord.
(C) A prince had asked Tattercoats for the way to the town.
(D) Tattercoats was never able to attend the party held by the King.
(E) All are true
Ans : (C)

5. What did the young man do when Tattercoats refused to accept the gifts ?
(A) He had to take the gifts back.
(B) He was impressed by her self respect and decided to marry her.
(C) He said that unless she accepts the gifts she would not be able to attend the party.
(D) He promised to buy more expensive gifts for her.
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. Why did the rich landlord swear never to see his granddaughter’s face ?
(A) He was upset that she had married the prince against his wish.
(B) He always wanted a grandson and not a granddaughter.
(C) He held her responsible for the death of his daughter.
(D) He was upset with her since she did not take good care of him.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. How did the King react to his son’s decision to marry Tattercoats ?
(A) He was upset since his son had chosen her over the rich and wealthy ladies present in the party.
(B) He was very happy with his son’s decision and gladly welcomed Tattercoats.
(C) He was unhappy with the marriage as he had sworn never to see Tattercoats’s face in his life.
(D) He stared in amazement and laughed at his son’s choice.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following best describes Tattercoats ?
(A) Shrewed
(B) Manipulative
(C) Opportunist
(D) Clever
(E) Beautiful
Ans : (E)

9. Why did the rich landlord’s granddaughter become known as Tattercoats ?
(A) She was named so by her parents.
(B) Her grandfather named her so as he hated her and wanted her to be mocked around by the people
(C) She liked to play around with parrots who were her only companions
(D) She was always dressed in old and torn out clothes.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following statements regarding the prince is true ?
(A) He wanted to marry a rich and wealthy lady.
(B) He did not allow Tattercoats to attend the party hosted by the king.
(C) He made a joke of Tattercoats’ attire and condition
(D) A herd of parrots were his only friends in the whole world
(E) None of the above statements is true
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. BITTERLY
(A) Tastelessly
(B) Intensely
(C) Rudely
(D) Eagerly
(E) Purposefully
Ans : (B)

12. ASTONISHED
(A) Happy
(B) Shocked
(C) Embarrassed
(D) Surprised
(E) Frightened
Ans : (D)

13. VOW
(A) Pledge
(B) Sacrifice
(C) Assurance
(D) Declaration
(E) Announcement
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 14 –15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. SPLENDIDLY
(A) Wisely
(B) Unfairly
(C) Rudely
(D) Reluctantly
(E) Unimpressively
Ans : (E)

15. CHARMED
(A) Offended
(B) Stunned
(C) Repulsed
(D) Jealous
(E) Outraged
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. They asked him (A) / how did he received (B) / the wound but he (C) / refused to answer. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

17. Babar was not only (A) / a great soldier, (B) / but also a (C) / very wisest ruler. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. Weather permitting, (A) / there will be a (B) / garden party on (C) / the farm house tomorrow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. As the airplane was (A) / ready for takeoff, (B) / the passengers and the crew (C) / fastened themselves’ seatbelts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

20. The teacher admires Rahul (A) / as he has always (B) / admired students which (C) / speak the truth. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Instead of running (A) / as fast as possible (B) / he could not (C) / win the race. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

22. The meeting was not (A) / of much help (B) / as there was too much talk (C) / and little work. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. Reema is the tallest (A) / of my two daughters (B) / eventhough she is (C) / 5 years younger. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

24. The walls of the house (A) / are made of stone (B) / whereas the floor (C) / is made of wood. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

25. His son has make (A) / much progress in life (B) / owing to his (C) / hard work and determination. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following Six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(a) It can be done in many simple ways such as turning off the taps, fixing leaks on time and reusing used water etc.
(b) Only 1% of all the water on the Earth is usable.
(c) With such growth rate it is important that we conserve water, use it wisely and not waste it.
(d) The rest is either salt water or permanently frozen.
(e) If everyone makes efforts to follow these simple ways, the water crisis would be solved to a great extent.
(f) As population grows, more and more people are using this limited resource.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (e)
(D) (d)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following questions Six words are given which are denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer.

31. (a) IS
(b) LIVING
(c) HE
(d) GREATEST
(e) POET
(f) THE
(A) CAFBDE
(B) CAFEDB
(C) CAFDBE
(D) FDBEAC
(E) FDBCEA
Ans : (C)

32. (a) CAR
(b) YOURS
(c) IS
(d) THAN
(e) MY
(f) FASTER
(A) EACFBD
(B) BACFDE
(C) BACFED
(D) EAFCDB
(E) EACFDB
Ans : (E)

33. (a) A
(b) HONOUR
(c) HE
(d) OF
(e) IS
(f) MAN
(A) AFDBCE
(B) CEAFDB
(C) AFDBEC
(D) CEAFBD
(E) CEFADB
Ans : (B)

34. (a) YOUNGER
(b) DOCTOR
(c) IS
(d) MY
(e) A
(f) SISTER
(A) DAFCEB
(B) EABCDF
(C) EABDCF
(D) DAFECB
(E) DABCDF
Ans : (A)

35. (a) SUPPORTED
(b) HE
(c) CLAIMS
(d) FRIEND’S
(e) HIS
(f) FULLY
(A) BFADEC
(B) BFAEDC
(C) EDCBFA
(D) EDBCFA
(E) BFACDE
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, if any, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E), i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. Although (A) it was the first time the King had lead his troupes (B) to the battle, he showed (C) remarkable (D) courage. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

37. As the dinner was ready (A) the hosts requested (B) everyone to procede (C) to the dining (D) hall. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

38. The police stopped (A) him and asked for the lisence (B) which he unfortunately (C) did not carry while going (D) for the drive. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

39. His father thought (A) that he had moe potential (B) to become (C) an engineer then (D) a doctor. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

40. The doctors at the hospital says (A) that he will be absolutely (B) fine within a week’s time, given (C) that he follows their advice. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

One day in the King’s Court, Birbal happened to have an argument with Akbar. The casual argument soon became very hot. Akbar, being a very sensitive king, got very angry and …(41)… Birbal to get out of his Palace and also his kingdom. Birbal had to …(42)… the King’s order and left the court immediately. After a couple of days, Akbar couldn’t stop …(43)… about Birbal. He …(44)… him very much and wanted to bring him back to the court. But, Birbal was missing and could not be …(45)… anywhere. Soon Akbar got an idea and made an …(46)… to the kingdom saying “I would reward 1,000 gold coins to the person who can walk in the Sun with half shade on him.”

The very next day a villager came to the court. It was a hot sunny day and the villager was holding a String Cot above his head. He came to Akbar and said “Oh’ King ! I walked in the sun and by holding this string cot over my head, I have half shade on me. So, please …(47)… over my reward” At once Akbar understood that it must be the plan of Birbal. He asked the villager who taught him this idea. The Villager …(48)… that it was Birbal’s …(49)…. On hearing this Akbar was very happy. He requested Birbal to come back to the palace and they had a happy …(50)….

41. (A) proposed
(B) requested
(C) invited
(D) ordered
(E) arrange
Ans : (D)

42. (A) defy
(B) obey
(C) adhere
(D) comply
(E) deny
Ans : (B)

43. (A) missing
(B) disappointing
(C) hating
(D) consider
(E) thinking
Ans : (E)

44. (A) missed
(B) hated
(C) avoided
(D) ignored
(E) scolded
Ans : (A)

45. (A) met
(B) placed
(C) gathered
(D) found
(E) familiarized
Ans : (D)

46. (A) appeal
(B) order
(C) announcement
(D) enquiry
(E) suggestion
Ans : (C)

47. (A) give
(B) hand
(C) provide
(D) supply
(E) deliver
Ans : (B)

48. (A) confessed
(B) pleaded
(C) appealed
(D) ashamed
(E) appreciated
Ans : (A)

49. (A) conspiracy
(B) indication
(C) fraud
(D) trap
(E) suggestion
Ans : (E)

50. (A) unite
(B) joining
(C) recovery
(D) reunion
(E) retrieval
Ans : (D)

Some thing about :  The Constitution of India

1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been
laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are
enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for
operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian
territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

3. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above

4. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty
5. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is
the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial
emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

8. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get
reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

9. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the
protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to
the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

11. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for
President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the
head of the states for his official act from legal action, including
proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the
right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of
either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly &
Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or
newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of
proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings’ of a House of the
Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion
or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment’.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a
garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must
not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above
16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional
right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute
arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in
operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above
17. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the
British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C
18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other
person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the
Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964
19. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power
to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions
of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to
any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to
conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry
out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with
respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the
advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above
23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

24. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the
proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be
taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha—
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days

27. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution
for Removal from his office is under consideration—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok
Sabha are mentioned—
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament
after notification is received from the Election Commission—
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the
Houses of Parliament—
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above

33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of
the Houses of Parliament—
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House

34. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament—
(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110

35. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter—
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill

36. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold—
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above

37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of
Parliament—
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above

38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented—
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above

39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure—
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent
matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences.

40. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha
(D) All the above

41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister

42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha—
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House

43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of
Reading before it becomes act—
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above

44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is
the status of the name—
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure

45. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

46. When does the President assent the Bill—
(A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill
(B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above

47. In India, when does the financial year commence—
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(D) Fifteenth March

48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above

49. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

50. How are the parts of the Budget known as—
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was
the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every
territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

53. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall
be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as
18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen
eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the
Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the
Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian
citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage’ signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above

61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not
be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House
of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the
courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by
appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats
for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the
Anglo-Indian Community’ with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community
can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the
Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian
Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative
Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation
of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for
reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok
Sabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for
reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of
seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation
of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative
Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above

75. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in
Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

76. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of
Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a
Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill

81. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

82. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House &
Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above

83. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

84. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President
Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

85. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are
elected as laid down by their country’s constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College

87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with
respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three
constitutional organ
(D) All the above

88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not
amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

89. What is the nature of India’s political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme
Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

91. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the
Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the
Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State
Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter
V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of
State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above

94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the
Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights
cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through
Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian
Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third
majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum
for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of
the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above

Answers :

1.(A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(A)
6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(D)
11.(A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(D)
16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(A) 19.(B) 20.(C)
21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(D) 24.(A) 25.(C)
26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(C) 30.(A)
31.(C) 32.(C) 33.(A) 34.(A) 35.(D)
36.(D) 37.(A) 38.(B) 39.(D) 40.(C)
41.(A) 42.(D) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(B)
46.(C) 47.(A) 48.(C) 49.(B) 50.(C)
51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(A) 54.(B) 55.(C)
56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(D) 59.(A) 60.(C)
61.(A) 62.(C) 63.(D) 64.(A) 65.(B)
66.(C) 67.(A) 68.(D) 69.(B) 70.(D)
71.(B) 72.(C) 73.(D) 74.(A) 75.(B)
76.(D) 77.(C) 78.(B) 79.(A) 80.(B)
81.(D) 82.(D) 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(C)
86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B)
91.(A) 92.(D) 93.(D) 94.(C) 95.(A)
96.(B) 97.(A) 98.(D) 99.(D) 100.(D)

In order to make the Reserve Bank of India more powerful, the Indian Government nationalised it on January 1, 1949. With a view to have the co-ordinated regulation of Indian banking, the Indian Banking Act was passed in March 1949. According to this Act, the Reserve Bank of India was granted extended powers for the inspection of non-scheduled banks. For the development of the banking facilities in the rural areas the Imperial Bank of India was partially nationalised on 1 July, 1955 and it was named as the State Bank of India. Alongwith it other 8 (at present 7) banks were converted as its associate banks which form what is named as the State Bank Group. They are as follows—

1.
The State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur (In the beginning the State Bank of Bikaner and the State Bank of Jaipur were separate. But they were merged and named as the State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur)
2.
The State Bank of Hyderabad
3.
The State Bank of Indore
4.
The State Bank of Mysore
5.
The State Bank of Saurashtra
6.
The State Bank of Patiala
7.
The State Bank of Travancore.
In order to have more control over the banks, 14 large commercial banks whose reserves were more than Rs. 50 crore each were nationalized on 19th July, 1969. The nationalised
banks are as follows :

1.
The Central Bank of India
2.
Bank of India
3.
Punjab National Bank
4.
Canara Bank
5.
United Commercial Bank
6.
Syndicate Bank
7.
Bank of Baroda
8.
United Bank of India
9.
Union Bank of India
10.
Dena Bank
11.
Allahabad Bank
12.
Indian Bank
13.
Indian Overseas Bank
14.
Bank of Maharashtra

After one decade, on April 15, 1980, those 6 private sector banks whose reserves were more than Rs. 200 crore each were nationalised.
These banks are as :

1.
Andhra Bank
2.
Punjab and Sindh Bank
3.
New Bank of India
4.
Vijaya Bank
5.
Corporation Bank
6.
Oriental Bank of Commerce.

On 4th September, 1993 the Government merged the New Bank of India with Punjab National Bank and as a result of this the total number of nationalised bank got reduced from 20 to 19.

With the transition of the Indian economy to a higher growth trajectory, the provision of adequate and timely availability of bank credit to the productive sectors of the economy has acquired importance. As public sector banks still own about 71 per cent of the assets of the banking system, they continue to play an important role in responding to the changes in the economic environment. As the banking regulator and supervisor and as the monetary policy authority, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) continues to guide the banking system, including foreign, private sector and public sector banks, to meet emerging economic challenges.

As certain rigidities and weaknesses were found to have developed in the banking system during the late eighties, the Government felt that these had to be addressed to enable the financial system to play its role in ushering in a more efficient and competitive economy. Accordingly, a high-level Committee under the Chairmanship of Shri M. Narasimham on the Financial System (CFS), was set up on 14 August, 1991 to examine all aspects relating to the structure, organisation, functions and procedures of the financial systems. Based on the recommendations of the Committee a comprehensive reform of the banking system was introduced in 1992-93.

A high-level Committee, under the Chairmanship of Shri M. Narasimham was constituted by the Government of India in December 1997 to review the record of implementation of financial system reforms recommended by the CFS in 1991 and chart the reforms necessary in the years ahead. The Committee submitted its report to the Government in April 1998.

1. Programs from the same developer, sold bundled together, that provide better integration and share common features, toolbars, and menus are known as………………….
(A) Software suites
(B) Integrated software packages
(C) Software processing packages
(D) Personal information managers
(E) None of these

2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these
3. …………………. servers store and manage files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these

4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except ………………….
(A) Hackers
(B) Spam
(C) Viruses
(D) Identity theft
(E) None of these

5. …………………. terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these

6. The OSI model is divided into …………………. processes called layers.
(A) Five
(B) Six
(C) Seven
(D) Eight
(E) None of these

7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and …………………. software to work together.
(A) Management
(B) Processing
(C) Utility
(D) Application
(E) None of these

8. …………………. are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these

9. The following are all mobile computing devices, except ………………….
(A) Notebook computers
(B) Cellular telephones
(C) Digital scanners
(D) Personal digital assistants
(E) None of these

10. In a ring topology, the computer in possession of the …………………. can transmit data.
(A) Packet
(B) Data
(C) Access method
(D) Token
(E) None of these

11. This part of the operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen, disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ………………….
(A) Basic input/output system
(B) Secondary input/output system
(C) Peripheral input/output system
(D) Marginal input/output system
(E) None of these

12. …………………. viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy disk drive.
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot-sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these

13. …………………. controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these

14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ………………….
(A) Mainframe
(B) Network
(C) Supercomputer
(D) Client
(E) None of these

15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following ?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exist
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these

16. URL stands for ………………….
(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these

17. A database management system (DBMS) is a………………….
(A) Hardware system used to create, maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) Hardware system used to create, maintain and provide uncontrolled access to a database
(C) Software system used to create, maintain and provide uncontrolled access to a database
(D) Software system used to create, maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(E) None of these

18. Which of the following is not a goal of transaction processing systems ?
(A) Capture, process and store transactions
(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making
(E) None of these

19. A proxy server is used for which of the following ?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for Web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these

20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes ………………….
(A) Data redundancy
(B) Information overload
(C) Duplicate data
(D) Data inconsistency
(E) None of these

21. …………………. are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control words
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these

22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm ?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user’s computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker : script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not as serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these

23. …………………. describe what is in database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definitions
(D) Field names
(E) None of these

24. You must install a(n) …………………. on a network if you want to share a broadband internet connection.
(A) Router
(B) Modem
(C) Node
(D) Cable
(E) None of these

25. A goal of normalization is to………………….
(A) Minimize the number of relationships
(B) Minimize the number of entities
(C) Minimize the number of tables
(D) Minimize data redundancy
(E) None of these

26. Granting an outside organization access to internal web pages is often implemented using a(n)………………….
(A) Extranet
(B) Intranet
(C) Internet
(D) Hacker
(E) None of these

27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the Web and the main page of the entire site ?
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these

28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database tasks is referred to as ………………….
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these

29. Chip is a common nickname for a(n)………………….
(A) Transistor
(B) Resistor
(C) Integrated circuit
(D) Semiconductor
(E) None of these

30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to ………………….
(A) Unlock the database
(B) Provide a map of the data
(C) Establish constraints on database operations
(D) Uniquely identify a record
(E) None of these

31. A…………………. contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) Programming language
(B) Syntax
(C) Programming structure
(D) Logic chart
(E) None of these

32. The design of the network is called the network………………….
(A) Transmission
(B) Type
(C) Architecture
(D) Server
(E) None of these

33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from………………….
(A) The hard disk
(B) Cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) Registers
(E) None of these

34. The …………………. contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) Data dictionary
(B) Data table
(C) Data record
(D) Data field
(E) None of these

35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as ………………….
(A) Listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) Blogs
(D) Subject directories
(E) None of these

36. A(n) …………………. uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) Command-based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) System utility
(D) API
(E) None of these

37. The …………………. manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) Documentation
(B) Programming
(C) Technical
(D) User
(E) None of these

38. Which of the following is not a type of broadband internet connection ?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these

39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as ………………….
(A) Spyware
(B) Adware
(C) Spam
(D) Malware
(E) None of these

40. Making a field …………………. means that it cannot be left blank.
(A) Numeric
(B) Required
(C) Calculated
(D) Validated
(E) None of these
41. ………………….is the process of finding
errors in software code.
(A) Debugging
(B) Compiling
(C) Testing
(D) Running
(E) None of these

42. …………………. are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these

43. Linux is a(n) …………………. operating system.
(A) Open-source
(B) Windows
(C) Microsoft
(D) Mac
(E) None of these

44. What is a backup ?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a system’s information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest ?
(A) Character, file, record, field, database
(B) Character, record, field, file, database
(C) Character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(E) None of these

46. The Internet is ………………….
(A) A large network of networks
(B) An internal communication system for a business
(C) A communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

47. …………………. are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these

48. Which of the following statements is false concerning file names ?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these

49. Verification of a login name and password is known as………………….
(A) Configuration
(B) Accessibility
(C) Authentication
(D) Logging in
(E) None of these

50. Which of the following would most likely not be a symptom of a virus ?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen
(E) None of these

Answers with Hint
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (B) Embedded computers are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat in your home.
9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C)
14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (E)
19. (A) 20. (D) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D)
24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B)
29. (C) 30. (D) 31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (B)
34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (C)
39. (D) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (A)
44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D)
49. (C) 50. (B)1. Programs from the same developer, sold bundled together, that provide better integration and share common features, toolbars, and menus are known as………………….
(A) Software suites
(B) Integrated software packages
(C) Software processing packages
(D) Personal information managers
(E) None of these

2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these

3. …………………. servers store and manage files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these

4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except ………………….
(A) Hackers
(B) Spam
(C) Viruses
(D) Identity theft
(E) None of these

5. …………………. terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these

6. The OSI model is divided into …………………. processes called layers.
(A) Five
(B) Six
(C) Seven
(D) Eight
(E) None of these

7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and …………………. software to work together.
(A) Management
(B) Processing
(C) Utility
(D) Application
(E) None of these

8. …………………. are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these

9. The following are all mobile computing devices, except ………………….
(A) Notebook computers
(B) Cellular telephones
(C) Digital scanners
(D) Personal digital assistants
(E) None of these

10. In a ring topology, the computer in possession of the …………………. can transmit data.
(A) Packet
(B) Data
(C) Access method
(D) Token
(E) None of these

11. This part of the operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen, disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ………………….
(A) Basic input/output system
(B) Secondary input/output system
(C) Peripheral input/output system
(D) Marginal input/output system
(E) None of these

12. …………………. viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy disk drive.
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot-sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these

13. …………………. controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these

14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ………………….
(A) Mainframe
(B) Network
(C) Supercomputer
(D) Client
(E) None of these

15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following ?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exist
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these

16. URL stands for ………………….
(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these

17. A database management system (DBMS) is a………………….
(A) Hardware system used to create, maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) Hardware system used to create, maintain and provide uncontrolled access to a database
(C) Software system used to create, maintain and provide uncontrolled access to a database
(D) Software system used to create, maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(E) None of these

18. Which of the following is not a goal of transaction processing systems ?
(A) Capture, process and store transactions
(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making
(E) None of these

19. A proxy server is used for which of the following ?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for Web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these

20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes ………………….
(A) Data redundancy
(B) Information overload
(C) Duplicate data
(D) Data inconsistency
(E) None of these

21. …………………. are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control words
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these

22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm ?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user’s computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker : script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not as serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these

23. …………………. describe what is in database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definitions
(D) Field names
(E) None of these

24. You must install a(n) …………………. on a network if you want to share a broadband internet connection.
(A) Router
(B) Modem
(C) Node
(D) Cable
(E) None of these

25. A goal of normalization is to………………….
(A) Minimize the number of relationships
(B) Minimize the number of entities
(C) Minimize the number of tables
(D) Minimize data redundancy
(E) None of these

26. Granting an outside organization access to internal web pages is often implemented using a(n)………………….
(A) Extranet
(B) Intranet
(C) Internet
(D) Hacker
(E) None of these

27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the Web and the main page of the entire site ?
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these

28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database tasks is referred to as ………………….
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these

29. Chip is a common nickname for a(n)………………….
(A) Transistor
(B) Resistor
(C) Integrated circuit
(D) Semiconductor
(E) None of these

30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to ………………….
(A) Unlock the database
(B) Provide a map of the data
(C) Establish constraints on database operations
(D) Uniquely identify a record
(E) None of these

31. A…………………. contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) Programming language
(B) Syntax
(C) Programming structure
(D) Logic chart
(E) None of these

32. The design of the network is called the network………………….
(A) Transmission
(B) Type
(C) Architecture
(D) Server
(E) None of these

33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from………………….
(A) The hard disk
(B) Cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) Registers
(E) None of these

34. The …………………. contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) Data dictionary
(B) Data table
(C) Data record
(D) Data field
(E) None of these

35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as ………………….
(A) Listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) Blogs
(D) Subject directories
(E) None of these

36. A(n) …………………. uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) Command-based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) System utility
(D) API
(E) None of these

37. The …………………. manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) Documentation
(B) Programming
(C) Technical
(D) User
(E) None of these

38. Which of the following is not a type of broadband internet connection ?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these

39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as ………………….
(A) Spyware
(B) Adware
(C) Spam
(D) Malware
(E) None of these

40. Making a field …………………. means that it cannot be left blank.
(A) Numeric
(B) Required
(C) Calculated
(D) Validated
(E) None of these
41. ………………….is the process of finding
errors in software code.
(A) Debugging
(B) Compiling
(C) Testing
(D) Running
(E) None of these

42. …………………. are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these

43. Linux is a(n) …………………. operating system.
(A) Open-source
(B) Windows
(C) Microsoft
(D) Mac
(E) None of these

44. What is a backup ?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a system’s information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest ?
(A) Character, file, record, field, database
(B) Character, record, field, file, database
(C) Character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database
(E) None of these

46. The Internet is ………………….
(A) A large network of networks
(B) An internal communication system for a business
(C) A communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these

47. …………………. are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these

48. Which of the following statements is false concerning file names ?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these

49. Verification of a login name and password is known as………………….
(A) Configuration
(B) Accessibility
(C) Authentication
(D) Logging in
(E) None of these

50. Which of the following would most likely not be a symptom of a virus ?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen
(E) None of these

Answers with Hint
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (B) Embedded computers are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat in your home.
9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C)
14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (E)
19. (A) 20. (D) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D)
24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B)
29. (C) 30. (D) 31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (B)
34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (C)
39. (D) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (A)
44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D)
49. (C) 50. (B)

Read the questions and choose the answer according to that

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SHOULDER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Brick
(B) Cement
(C) Sand
(D) Mortar
(E) Wall

3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, using each letter once in each word, which of the following is the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
(A) L
(B) E
(C) S
(D) X
(E) Y

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Methane
(D) Neon
(E) Helium

5. In a certain code BREAKING is written as BFSCFMHJ. How is MOTHERLY written in that code ?
(A) IUPNZMSF
(B) IUPNXKQD
(C) IUPNFSMZ
(D) GSNLZMSF
(E) None of these

6. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different height, Q is taller than S. T is shorter than P. R is taller than Q but shorter than T. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) S
(B) P
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

7. Mohan correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before 16th but after 13th August whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after 14th but before 18th August. On which day in August was their mother’s birthday definitely ?
(A) 15th
(B) 14th
(C) 14th or 15th
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

8. In a certain code BEND is written as ‘5%3#’ and NIGHT is written as ‘3@©64’. How is DEBT written in that code ?
(A) #%©4
(B) #@54
(C) #%34
(D) #%54
(E) None of these

9. How many such digits are there in the number 5834619 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

10. If the positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 85231467 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on, which of the following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 1
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–16) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements :
All drums are tubes.
Some tubes are pipes.
No pipe is stick.
Some sticks are rubbers.
Conclusions :
I. Some rubbers are tubes.
II. Some sticks are drums.
III. Some pipes are drums.
IV. Some sticks are tubes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) Only III follows

12. Statements :
Some pens are rooms.
All rooms are walls.
Some walls are bricks.
All bricks are slates.
Conclusions :
I. Some slates are walls.
II. Some walls are pens.
III. Some bricks are rooms
IV. Some slates are rooms.
(A) Only I and III follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
(E) None of these

13. Statements :
Some chairs are pencils.
Some pencils are bottles.
Some bottles are bags.
Some bags are books.
Conclusions :
I. Some books are pencils.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. No book is pencil.
IV. Some bags are chairs.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only either I or III follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these

14. Statements :
Some roads are buses.
All buses are trains.
Some trains are trucks.
All trucks are kites.
Conclusions :
I. Some trucks are roads.
II. Some kites are buses.
III. Some trains are roads.
IV. Some kites are trains.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these

15. Statements :
All beads are rings.
All rings are bangles.
All bangles are tyres.
All tyres are pendants.
Conclusions :
I. Some pendants are beads.
II. Some tyres are rings.
III. Some bangles are beads.
IV. Some pendants are rings.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I, II and III follow
(C) Only II, III and IV follow
(D) Only I, III and IV follow
(E) All follow

16. Statements :
Some desks are fruits.
All fruits are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are flowers.
II. No desk is branch.
III. Some flowers are desks.
IV. Some branches are desks.
(A) Only either II or IV follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either II or IV and III follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 17–22) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
R 4 P I J M Q 3 % T @ © U K 5 V 1 W $ Y 2 B E 6 # 9 D H 8 G * Z N

17. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) #
(C) %
(D) $
(E) None of these

18. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a letter ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

19. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

20. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

21. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
P J Q T © K 1 $ 2 ?
(A) E # D
(B) 6 9 D
(C) 6 9 8
(D) 6 # D
(E) None of these

22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) W Y 1
(B) Q % M
(C) © K @
(D) 9 H 6
(E) G Z 8

Directions—(Q. 23–28) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a club. Each of them has a favourite sport from-Chess, Table Tennis, Lawn Tennis, Volleyball, Badminton, Basketball and Carrom, not necessarily in the same order.

Each of them also has a specific choice of colour from—Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Grey, Black and White, not necessarily in the same order.

R likes Green and his favourite sport is Badminton. V’s choice of colour is neither Red nor Black. T’s favourite sport is neither Table Tennis nor Basketball. The one who likes Blue does not like Carrom. The one who likes Volleyball does not like Yellow and Grey. Q’s favourite sport is Lawn Tennis and he likes Black. S likes White. W likes Basketball. P likes Volleyball. T likes Blue. The one who likes Basketball does not like Grey.

23. What is V’s choice of colour ?
(A) Black
(B) Grey
(C) Yellow
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

24. What is T’s favourite sport ?
(A) Basketball
(B) Volleyball
(C) Chess
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

25. Whose favourite sport is Carrom?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) W
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

26. Whose favourite sport is basketball ?
(A) S
(B) T
(C) W
(D) R
(E) Data inadequate

27. What is W’s choice of colour ?
(A) Green
(B) White
(C) Black
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following combinations of sport and colour is correct ?
(A) Table Tennis, Yellow
(B) Volleyball, Red
(C) Volleyball, Grey
(D) Chess, Black
(E) Carrom, Green

Directions—(Q. 29–34) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, give answer (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letter :
R K A D E M W T I V U B F H P
Digit/Symbol :
2 δ 3 * 1 8 # 4 $ 5 © 9 6 @ 7
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes for the first and the last letters are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as ‘?’.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.

Now based on the above, find out the coded form of the letter groups given in each question.

29. AMPERI
(A) 38712$
(B) $87123
(C) 387123
(D) 37812$
(E) None of these

30. RTVUBH
(A) 245©9@
(B) @45©92
(C) @45©9@
(D) ?45©9?
(E) None of these

31. BEFKMA
(A) 916δ83
(B) ?16δ8?
(C) 316δ89
(D) 316δ83
(E) None of these

32. EWPKIH
(A) 1#7δ$@
(B) ?#7δ$?
(C) 17#δ$@
(D) @#7δ$1
(E) None of these

33. RTDAVB
(A) 94*352
(B) 24*352
(C) ?4*35?
(D) 24*359
(E) None of these

34. HEUPKI
(A) @1©7δ$
(B) $1©7δ$
(C) @1©7δ@
(D) ?1©7δ?
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 35–40) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, δ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true ? Give answer—
(A) If only Conclusion I is true
(B) If only Conclusion II is true
(C) If either Conclusion I or II is true
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(E) If both Conclusions I and II are true

35. Statements :
R © T, T @ M, M δ D
Conclusions : I. D # T
II. M # T

36. Statements :
B @ N, N % R, R © F
Conclusions : I. B @ F
II. N # F

37. Statements :
D # T, T @ R, R © M
Conclusions : I. M # D
II. M # T

38. Statements :
K δ H, H % F, F # J
Conclusions : I. F © K
II. J © H

39. Statements :
W @ G, N © G, N % V
Conclusions : I. W @ N
II. V © G

40. Statements :
T © Y, Y % M, M @ R
Conclusions : I. R # Y
II. T δ M

Directions—(Q. 41–45) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions—

a, b, c, d, e and f are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. f is third to the right of b who is second to the right of e. c is third to the left of e. a is not an immediate neighbour of f.

41. Who is to the immediate right of f ?
(A) c
(B) d
(C) e
(D) b
(E) None of these

42. Who is to the immediate left of c ?
(A) b
(B) f
(C) b or f
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

43. Who is second to the right of c ?
(A) a
(B) e
(C) d
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

44. Who is to the immediate right of a ?
(A) e
(B) d
(C) c
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

45. Who are the immediate neighbours of e ?
(A) ab
(B) df
(C) bd
(D) af
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer—

(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
(E) If the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.

46. How many daughters does M have ?
I. N and P are sisters of K.
II. M is father of K.

47. On which day of the week did Mohan visit temple ?
I. Mohan visited the temple one day after his sister’s visit to temple.
II. Mohan’s sister visited the temple before Sunday.

48. What does ‘ja’ mean in a code language ?
I. ‘ja pa na’ means ‘go home now’ in that code language.
II. ‘na da ta’ means ‘come back home’ in that code language.

49. Among M, N, T, P and R each having different weight, who is the heaviest ?
I. T is heavier than P and M but lighter than N who is not the heaviest.
II. M is lighter than P.

50. How is D related to T ?
I. D’s brother is father of T’s sister.
II. T’s brother is son of D’s brother.

Answers with Hints
1. (C) 2. (E) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (B)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (E) 15. (E)
16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (E) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D)
26. (C) 27. (E) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (E) 34. (D) 35. (E)
36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (E) 44. (E) 45. (D)
46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)